Oracle Oracle Certifications 1Z0-574 Questions & Answers

• Question 51:

  What one the three primary concerns that developers following this architecture should strive to conform to?

  A. Personalization

  B. Modular development

  C. Internationalization

  D. Localization

  E. The Model View-Controller (MVC) pattern

  F. Federation

  Correct Answer: BEF

  Explanation: The Development View of the architecture describes aspects of the architecture that are of interest to developers building assets that conform to and leverage the architecture. There are three primary concerns that developers following this architecture should strive to conform with: the model-viewcontroller (MVC) pattern, modular development, and federation.

  References:

• Question 52:

  What does ORA Engineering refer to as Round-Trip Engineering?

  A. the ability to effectively perform both forward and reverse engineering to seamlessly transform assets in either direction of the life cycle

  B. the ability to derive artifacts from a previous life-cycle activity

  C. the ability to generate artifacts backwardsinthe life cycle

  D. a continuous improvement process in the SDLC that allows the assets to be produced at various stages of the life cycle with a feedback loop from operations to requirement analysis.

  Correct Answer: A

  Explanation:

  Round-trip engineering is the ability to effectively perform both forward and reverse engineering to

  seamlessly transform the lifecycle assets. Forward engineering is very useful the first time that code is

  generated from a model. It saves much of the mundane work of keying in classes, attributes, and methods.

  Reverse engineering is very useful both to transform code into a model when no model previously existed,

  as well as to resynchronize a model with the code at the end of a change.

  Note:

  During an iterative development cycle, once a model has been updated as part of an iteration, another

  round of forward engineering should allow code to be refreshed with any new classes, methods or

  attributes that have been added to the model. Source code generally contains much more than the model

  and tools must be very adept at reconstructing the source code that existed prior to the new round of

  forward engineering. At minimum, the modeling tool should successfully support forward engineering the

  first time and reverse engineering throughout the process.

  References:

• Question 53:

  A customer has two separate lines of business and each has its own unique resources that are controlled independently. The customer wants to provide a single user interface at the enterprise level that, at least from the user's perspective, unifies the separate lines of business and presents a single consistent view. What is the most suitable architectural arrangement for such a federated deployment?

  A. The enterprise implements full client stack and part of the service stack while each LoB deploys the remaining part of the service tierin order to expose uniform interface elements.

  B. The client tier assimilates the data from the resource stack of each line of business.

  C. The enterprise implements full client and service stacks while each LoB deploys a partial service. sufficient to expose uniform interface elements.

  D. The client tier assimilates the data from the service stack of each line of business.

  Correct Answer: A

  Explanation: Each line of business has its own resources that are unique to the line of business and are controlled by that line of business. The enterprise wants to provide a single user interface that, at least from the user's perspective, unifies the separate lines of business. In this example, the enterprise wide user interface deployment is a full featured user interaction architecture (i.e. it contains all of the capabilities defined in the Logical View). Each line of business deploys limited functionality since the only functionality required is the functionality to create interface elements exposing the resources of that line of business. The enterprise wide user interface then uses the interface elements provided by the lines of business to create a unified user experience. The interface elements provided by the lines of business are Remote Providers to the enterprise user interface. This deployment allows the lines of business to maintain control of their respective resources since the only access to the resources is via the interface elements that they create.

  References:

• Question 54:

  Which of the following statements are true about asymmetric key encryption?

  A. It uses a pair of keys, one public and one private, that are unique and mathematically linked.

  B. It uses one key that is shared by both parties in the data exchange.

  C. It is faster than symmetric key encryption.

  D. It can be used in conjunction with symmetric key encryption in order to securely share a common encryption key.

  E. It can be used to produce and verify digital signatures.

  Correct Answer: AD

  Explanation: A:Public (asymmetric) key encryption uses a pair of keys, one private and one public. The public key is freely distributed to any party that may wish to send encrypted data. Once encrypted, data can only be decrypted with the private key. Therefore the private key is maintained by the receiving party and is not shared with anyone else. The two keys are mathematically related, but can't be used to discover each other.

  D: A combination of symmetric and asymmetric encryption is often used.

  References:

• Question 55:

  Which of the following statements best describes the ideal role of an application owner with respect to defining application security?

  A. The application owner must become knowledgeable about security risks, threats, classifications, and policies in order to define security requirements for his or her applications. The more on owner learns about security, the more secure his or her applications will become.

  B. The application owner should hire a security expert to define security requirements for his or herapplications, based on current Industry best practices. Actively implementing the latest trends will best ensure a secure application environment.

  C. The application owner should recommend adherence to common established practices for assessments, classifications, architecture, and policies that have been defined, and are actively maintained, by security experts across the organization. Deviations may be necessary, butapplication owners should strive to be consistent with best practices that have been adopted by the organization.

  D. The application owner, whenever possible, should elect to deploy applications into a public cloud computing environment. Doing so effectivelydelegatesresponsibility and accountability of concerns to another company. The owner doesn't need to be concerned with security as long as the cloud provider has been certified.

  Correct Answer: C

  Explanation: Application ownership can have an effect on application security. Ownership, in this sense, refers to the person, department, or organization that has authority over the security protections and processes that are followed. Owners have a role in expressing policy. They may choose to set strict policies and follow best practices and reference architectures. Or, they may choose to be lax on security and/or set their own standards. Ideally, an enterprise-class security architecture and processes are developed by pooling industry best practices and ideas, and all applications follow a common strategy without being compromised by ownership issues.

  References:

• Question 56:

  Which of the following does Policy Management Compliance refer to?

  A. a desired behavior, andis associated with one or more Infrastructure components

  B. the demonstration and enforcement of regulatory standards,industry standards, internal best practices

  C. a set of processes through which management identifies, analyzes and, where necessary, responds appropriately to risks

  D. a management approach to direct and control the entire organization by using a combination of management information and hierarchical management control structures

  Correct Answer: B

  Explanation:

  Policy management is the demonstration of, and enforcement to, regulatory standards, industry standards,

  and internal best practices.

• Question 57:

  

  The sequence diagram (attached) maps to the Model-View Controller (MVC) development pattern. Which statement best describes how the sequence diagram maps to the MVC development pattern?

  A. The three process blocks (or tiers) represented in the sequence diagram map from left to right to Controller, View, Model.

  B. The three process blocks (or tiers) represented in the sequence diagram map from left to right to View, Controller, Model.

  C. The Controller and View appear in the first process block (starting from the left of the diagram) while the Model spans the next two blocks (incorporating service Invocation and database).

  D. The sequence diagram does not map to MVC.

  Correct Answer: C

  Explanation:

  The controller receives input from the user and makes the corresponding calls on model elements. The

  response to the user input is displayed via the view elements. A single user input may result in changes to

  none, one, or many view elements.

  The view renders data from the model into a suitable interface element. Multiple different views may exist

  for a single model element. Each view element is designed to support a particular end user need; whereas

  the model elements are shared by all users of the system.

  The model manages the behavior and data for the system. The model responds to requests for information

  about its state from the view, and responds to instructions from the controller to change state or execute

  behavior. The model may also notify the view when information changes so that the view can update the

  effected interface elements.

  References:

• Question 58:

  Which of the following are capabilities required for the Integration subsystem of the Oracle Reference Architecture Management and Monitoring Framework?

  A. Data Exchange

  B. Extensibility Framework

  C. Patch Monitoring

  D. Alert and Notification Integration

  E. Reporting

  Correct Answer: ABD

  Explanation:

  Key integration capabilities:

  *

  Data Exchange

  *

  Extensibility Framework

  *

  Alert and Notification Integration

  Note: While it is preferable to have a single management and monitoring solution it is unrealistic that a single management and monitoring framework can support every available infrastructure component now and in the future. Two-way integration capabilities that cater for message exchange, bulk data exchange and extending the framework are key in addressing the needs of the modern IT environment.

• Question 59:

  What does Lifecycle Management Provisioning refer to?

  A. The process of preparing and equipping a network to allow it to provide (new) services to its users.

  B. Automation of the Installation and configuration of operating systems, infrastructure software, applications, services, virtual servers, and hosts across different platforms, environments, and locations

  C. Demonstration and enforcement of regulatory standards. Industry standards, and internal best practices

  D. A comprehensive management and monitoring solution that helps to effectively manage services from an overview level to theindividual component

  Correct Answer: B

  Explanation:

  Provisioning deals with automation of the installation and configuration of operating systems, infrastructure

  software, applications, services, virtual servers, and hosts across different platforms, environments, and

  locations.

  Note: Lifecycle Management focuses on managing the lifecycle of software, applications, services, virtual

  servers, and hosts by automating deployment procedures to not only assist in the deployment of software,

  applications, services, and servers but also the maintenance of these deployments. This makes critical IT

  operations easy, efficient, and scalable resulting in lower operational risk and cost of ownership. Two key

  capabilities within lifecycle management is provisioning and patching.

  

  References:

• Question 60:

  Which of the following statements are true?

  A. The MVC pattern became very popular when the client-server architecture was in common use.

  B. MVC was developed to map to three tiers of an n-tier architecture.

  C. Federation, as applied to user interfaces, means that all security standards must only be applied at a level at which government security agencies are able to decrypt communications.

  D. Federation, as applied to user interfaces, is the concept that parts of the user interface arecreatedand controlled by an organization that is separate from the organization creating the user interface.

  E. When in a disconnected state, the Data Management capability in the client tier may act temporarily as the model allowing the user interface to function.

  F. Federation, as applied to a user interfaces, means that data must be replicated.

  Correct Answer: AD

  Explanation:

  A: When the MVC pattern came into prominence, client-server was the system architecture de rigueur. Note: The model-view-controller (MVC) pattern separates the three major elements in the user interface; thereby providing separation of concerns which results in code that is more easily understood, reused, modified, and maintained. The three major elements in the user interface are: model, view, and controller.

  D: Whereas the MVC pattern and modular programming are relatively old concepts (at least as far as software development is concerned), federation is a relatively new concept closely related to service orientation. Applied to user interfaces, federation is the concept that parts of the user interface are created and controlled by an organization (authority) that is separate from the organization (authority) creating the user interface.

  References: