CompTIA CompTIA Certifications 220-1101 Questions & Answers

• Question 661:

  A user called the help desk to request assistance with selecting appropriate storage to back up a large collection of DVDs and photos in the most economical way. Which of the following should the help desk recommend?

  A. 5,400rpm HDD

  B. M.2 NVMe SSD

  C. SAS RAID array

  D. Optical media

  Correct Answer: D

  Explanation: Optical media, such as CDs, DVDs, or Blu-ray discs, are a suitable choice for backing up a large collection of DVDs and photos in the most economical way. Optical media are inexpensive, widely available, and have a long shelf life. They can store large amounts of data, up to 50GB on a dual-layer Blu-ray disc, and can be easily labeled and organized. Optical media are also less prone to mechanical failure, data corruption, or accidental deletion than hard disk drives (HDDs) or solid state drives (SSDs). The other options are not as economical or suitable for this purpose. A 5,400rpm HDD is a slow and noisy type of HDD that has moving parts that can wear out or break. A HDD also consumes more power and generates more heat than an SSD. A M.2 NVMe SSD is a fast and compact type of SSD that uses a PCIe interface to transfer data. However, an SSD is more expensive than an HDD or optical media, and has a limited number of write cycles before it degrades. A SAS RAID array is a complex and costly system that uses multiple HDDs or SSDs connected by a Serial Attached SCSI (SAS) interface to provide redundancy, performance, or both. A RAID array requires a RAID controller, a compatible motherboard, and a dedicated power supply. References: CompTIA A+ Certification ore 1 Objectives1 The Official CompTIA A+ Core 1 Student Guide (Exam 220-1101) eBook2 Best ways to backup photos of 2023 | TechRadar3 Best external hard drives in 2023: clever drives for added storage and ...4 DVD Storage Ideas | Remodelaholic5

• Question 662:

  An internet service provider is delivering service through a copper medium with shared customer bandwidth. Which of the following services has most likely been installed?

  A. Fiber

  B. Cable

  C. NIC

  D. DSL

  Correct Answer: B

  Explanation: Cable internet service is delivered through coaxial cables that are shared among multiple customers in a neighborhood. This means that the bandwidth may vary depending on the network congestion. Fiber, NIC, and DSL are not copper-based or shared mediums.

  Reference: CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) Certification Study Guide, page 28.

• Question 663:

  A network technician needs to provide better wireless connectivity throughout a SOHO location. Which of the following should the technician deploy to best improve connectivity?

  A. Access point

  B. Managed switch

  C. POE hub

  D. Wi-Fi router

  Correct Answer: A

  Explanation: The correct answer is A. Access point. An access point is a device that extends the wireless coverage of a network by creating a hotspot that allows wireless devices to connect to the network1. An access point can be connected to a router or a switch via an Ethernet cable or a wireless bridge1. By deploying one or more access points throughout a SOHO location, the technician can provide better wireless connectivity and eliminate dead zones or weak signals2. A managed switch is a device that allows multiple devices to communicate on a network by forwarding data packets based on their destination addresses3. A managed switch can also provide advanced features such as VLANs, QoS, security, and remote management3. However, a managed switch does not improve wireless connectivity, as it only works with wired devices. A POE hub is a device that provides power and data over a single Ethernet cable to devices that support Power over Ethernet (PoE) technology, such as IP cameras, VoIP phones, and wireless access points4. A POE hub can simplify the installation and placement of these devices by eliminating the need for separate power adapters or outlets4. However, a POE hub does not improve wireless connectivity by itself, as it still requires an access point or a router to create a wireless network. A Wi-Fi router is a device that combines the functions of a router and an access point, providing both wired and wireless connectivity to a network and the internet. A Wi-Fi router can be used to create a SOHO network, but it may not be sufficient to cover the entire location with a strong and reliable wireless signal. To improve wireless connectivity, the technician may need to add additional access points or use a mesh Wi-Fi system that consists of multiple routers that work together to create a seamless wireless network. Therefore, an access point is the best option among the choices to improve wireless connectivity throughout a SOHO location.

• Question 664:

  Which of the following services checks whether the sender's IP address is associated with the sender's domain name when receiving email?

  A. DKIM

  B. MX

  C. SPF

  D. DMARC

  Correct Answer: C

  The correct answer is C. SPF. SPF stands for Sender Policy Framework, which is a protocol that allows domain owners to specify which IP addresses are authorized to send email on behalf of their domains1. SPF helps prevent email spoofing and phishing by verifying the sender's identity and preventing unauthorized use of their domain name12. When an email is received, the receiving server checks the SPF record of the sender's domain, which is a DNS TXT record that lists the valid IP addresses for that domain12. The server then compares the sender's IP address with the SPF record and determines if it matches or not. If it matches, the email passes the SPF check and is accepted; if it does not match, the email fails the SPF check and is rejected or marked as spam12. DKIM stands for DomainKeys Identified Mail, which is a protocol that allows domain owners to digitally sign their emails using a public-private key pair3. DKIM helps ensure the integrity and authenticity of email messages by verifying that they have not been tampered with or forged during transit3 . MX stands for Mail Exchange, which is a type of DNS record that specifies the mail servers that are responsible for receiving email for a domain. MX records help direct incoming email to the correct destination and prioritize them based on preference values . DMARC stands for Domain-based Message Authentication, Reporting and Conformance, which is a protocol that builds on SPF and DKIM and allows domain owners to define how receivers should handle unauthenticated or suspicious emails from their domains. DMARC helps protect domains from email fraud and abuse by providing feedback and reports on email delivery and authentication status . Therefore, SPF is the only service among the options that checks whether the sender's IP address is associated with the sender's domain name when receiving email.

• Question 665:

  A technician is configuring the BIOS of a new workstation. The machine will be used for data analytics, and the technician would like to maximize the performance of the CPU. Which of the following BIOS settings should the technician verify?

  A. Virtualization technology

  B. GPU settings

  C. BIOS update

  D. Hyperthreading

  Correct Answer: D

  Explanation: Hyperthreading is a feature of some CPUs that allows them to execute two threads (sequences of instructions) simultaneously on each core. Hyperthreading can improve the performance of CPU-intensive tasks, such as data analytics, by increasing the utilization of CPU resources and reducing idle time. The technician should verify that hyperthreading is enabled in the BIOS settings of the workstation.

• Question 666:

  Which of the following delivers internet over a copper medium?

  A. ONT

  B. SDN

  C. DSL

  D. WISP

  Correct Answer: C

  The correct answer is C. DSL.

  DSL stands for Digital Subscriber Line, which is a technology that delivers internet over a copper medium, such as a telephone line. DSL uses different frequencies than voice calls, so it can provide both internet and phone service simultaneously. DSL can offer faster speeds than dial-up, but it depends on the distance from the service provider and the quality of the copper line . The other options are not technologies that deliver internet over a copper medium. ONT stands for Optical Network Terminal, which is a device that converts optical signals from a fiber optic cable to electrical signals for a copper cable or a wireless router. ONT is used for fiber-to-the-home (FTTH) internet service, which delivers internet over a fiber optic medium. SDN stands for Software Defined Networking, which is a technology that allows network administrators to manage and control network resources and traffic using software applications. SDN is not related to the physical medium of internet delivery, but rather to the logical layer of network configuration and optimization. WISP stands for Wireless Internet Service Provider, which is a company that delivers internet over a wireless medium, such as radio waves or microwaves. WISP can provide internet access to rural or remote areas where wired connections are not available or feasible.

• Question 667:

  A technician is replacing a failed drive in a RAID 5 array Which of the following is the first step the technician should take before hot swapping the drive out of the array?

  A. Document the replacement date.

  B. Shut down the array_

  C. Safely dispose of the failed drive.

  D. Perform a full backup

  Correct Answer: D

  Explanation: The answer is D. Perform a full backup.

  Before replacing a failed drive in a RAID 5 array, the technician should perform a full backup of the data on the array to ensure that no data is lost during the hot swapping process. Hot swapping is the process of replacing a drive without shutting down the system or the array, which allows for faster recovery and minimal downtime. However, hot swapping also involves some risks, such as accidentally removing the wrong drive, damaging the new drive, or encountering another drive failure during the rebuild process. Therefore, performing a full backup is a precautionary measure that can prevent data loss in case of any unexpected errors or complications. The other options are not the first steps that the technician should take before hot swapping the drive. Documenting the replacement date is a good practice, but it is not as important as backing up the data. Shutting down the array is not necessary for hot swapping, and it may cause more disruption to the system or the users. Safely disposing of the failed drive is a step that should be done after replacing it, not before. References: Hot-swapping the hard drives when the RAID crashes | QNAP, section "Install a new drive to rebuild RAID 5 by hot swapping": "Important: Do not install a new drive when the system is not in degraded mode, otherwise you may encounter unexpected system failures." Hot Swapping hard drives on Raid 5 with data on them - Spiceworks Community, reply by Magnus369: "Part of that slowness would be the raid level you are using. Highly doubt you can change it without losing data either, but your writes are going to be atrociously slow due to having to figure out parity across 11 drives for each write you do. While you may have a ton of space, it's unstable and subject to self destruction." hard drive - How do I Change a damaged Disk in a Raid 5 array - Server Fault, answer by Chris S: "If you have another disk failure during rebuild you will lose all your data."

• Question 668:

  An application developer formats and reconfigures a development PC after every application test is complete. Which of the following is the best way to improve the efficiency of this process?

  A. Installing an SSD

  B. Implementing a sandbox

  C. Disabling hyperthreading

  D. Enabling hardware acceleration

  Correct Answer: B

  Explanation: The best way to improve the efficiency of the process of formatting and reconfiguring a development PC after every application test is complete is to implement a sandbox. A sandbox is a virtual environment that isolates the application from the rest of the system, allowing the developer to test the application without affecting the main operating system, files, or settings. A sandbox can also be easily reset, deleted, or duplicated, saving the time and effort of formatting and reconfiguring the PC. A sandbox can also provide security benefits, such as preventing malware or bugs from spreading to the system or the network. Other options, such as installing an SSD, disabling hyperthreading, or enabling hardware acceleration, may improve the performance of the PC, but they do not address the issue of formatting and reconfiguring the PC after each test. An SSD (solid state drive) is a storage device that uses flash memory instead of spinning disks, and it can offer faster data access, lower power consumption, and less noise and heat. Hyperthreading is a feature of some CPUs (central processing units) that allows each core to run two threads simultaneously, increasing the multitasking and parallel processing capabilities of the PC. Hardware acceleration is a technique that uses the GPU (graphics processing unit) or other specialized hardware to perform some tasks faster than the CPU, such as rendering graphics, video, or audio. References: What is a Sandbox? | How Does a Sandbox Work? | Avast1 What is a Sandbox Environment? | Definition and FAQs2 How to Use a Sandbox to Test Software - Lifewire3 What is a Sandbox and How to Use One - Norton4 What is a Sandbox? - Definition from Techopedia5

• Question 669:

  A technician is upgrading a desktop's storage with the fastest option available. The desktop's motherboard is equipped with SATA Ill, NVMe, and IDE. Which of the following should the technician choose for the best performance?

  A. PCIe SSD connected via NVMe interface

  B. 3.5in (8.9cm) 10,000rpm HDD connected via IDE interface

  C. M.2 SSD connected via SATA interface

  D. 2.5in (6.35cm) SSD connected via SATA interface

  Correct Answer: A

  The best option that the technician should choose for the best performance is A. PCIe SSD connected via NVMe interface. This option means that the technician should install a solid state drive (SSD) that uses the PCIe (Peripheral Component Interconnect Express) bus and the NVMe (Non-Volatile Memory Express) protocol to communicate with the motherboard. This option can offer the following advantages: Faster speed: PCIe SSDs can transfer data faster than SATA or IDE SSDs, as they use more lanes and have higher bandwidth. PCIe SSDs can reach speeds of up to 7,000 MB/s, while SATA SSDs are limited to 600 MB/s and IDE SSDs are even slower12. NVMe is a protocol that is designed specifically for SSDs and can optimize their performance by reducing latency and increasing parallelism3. Smaller size: PCIe SSDs can be smaller than SATA or IDE SSDs, as they do not require additional cables or connectors. PCIe SSDs can come in different form factors, such as M.2 or U.2, which can fit in different slots on the motherboard12. Higher reliability: PCIe SSDs can be more reliable than SATA or IDE SSDs, as they have less moving parts and are less prone to mechanical failures or data corruption. PCIe SSDs can also support features such as error correction and wear leveling, which can enhance their durability and lifespan12.

• Question 670:

  A network technician is working to locate an end user's Cat 6 cable within a network rack. The server rack is poorly documented, and a cable management system has not been implemented_ Which of the following would be the best tool to best identify the correct cable?

  A. Cable tester

  B. Network tap

  C. Toner probe

  D. Loopback plug

  Correct Answer: C

  The best tool to identify the correct cable is C. Toner probe. A toner probe is a device that can be used to locate and trace a specific cable within a network rack or a wall outlet. A toner probe consists of two parts: a tone generator and a tone detector. The tone generator is connected to one end of the cable and sends an audible signal through the cable. The tone detector is used to scan the other end of the cable and pick up the signal. The tone detector emits a sound or a light when it detects the signal, indicating the correct cable. A toner probe can be useful for network technicians who need to locate an end user's Cat 6 cable within a network rack that is poorly documented and has no cable management system. A Cat 6 cable is a type of twisted pair cable that can support high-speed data transmission over Ethernet networks. A network rack is a frame that holds network equipment, such as servers, switches, routers, or patch panels. A cable management system is a set of devices or methods that organize and secure the cables within a network rack . The other options are not the best tools to identify the correct cable, because they have different purposes or limitations. A cable tester (option A) is a device that can be used to test the functionality and quality of a cable, such as its continuity, resistance, or interference. A cable tester can help diagnose and troubleshoot faulty cables, but it cannot locate or trace specific cables within a network rack. A network tap (option B) is a device that can be used to monitor and analyze the traffic and data that pass through a network. A network tap can help capture and inspect network packets, but it cannot locate or trace specific cables within a network rack. A loopback plug (option D) is a device that can be used to test the functionality and connectivity of a port or an interface. A loopback plug can help verify if a port or an interface is working properly, but it cannot locate or trace specific cables within a network rack. For more information about toner probes and other network tools, you can refer to the following web search results: [What Is a Toner Probe?], [What Is Cat 6 Cable?], [What Is a Network Rack?], [What Is a Cable Tester?], [What Is a Network Tap?], [What Is a Loopback Plug?].