ASCP ASCP Certifications ASCP-MLT Questions & Answers

• Question 191:

  The intended response is "transfusion dimorphism". The microcytic, hypochromic erythrocytes suggests iron deficiency anemia. Interspersed among these cells are normocytic, normochromic erythrocytes suggesting two populations of red cells following transfusion. This was a case of severe iron deficiency treated with red cell transfusions and iron supplement.

  The condition most likely associated with the peripheral blood picture in the photograph is:

  A. Hereditary spherocytosis

  B. Lead poisoning

  C. Transfusion dimorphism

  D. Folic acid deficiency

  Correct Answer: C

• Question 192:

  The laboratory is under the direction of a:

  A. phlebotomist

  B. pharmacist

  C. medical assistant

  D. pathologist

  Correct Answer: D

• Question 193:

  AHG must be added to the cells immediately following washing. Antibodies may elute from the cells if the cells are allowed to sit in saline without the addition of AHG.

  Which one of the following may cause a FALSE-NEGATIVE result with antiglobulin techniques?

  A. Red cell/AHG test sample is over-centrifuged

  B. Patient's blood specimen was collected in silicone gel tubes

  C. Saline used for washing the test sample has been stored in squirt bottles

  D. Addition of AHG is delayed for 40 minutes or more after final saline wash

  E. Patient's red cells have an antibody coating them

  Correct Answer: D

• Question 194:

  When making a platelet concentrate, the proper procedure is to start with a low centrifugation of the whole blood bag. After the plasma is removed, it is centrifuged again at a higher speed to separate the platelet portion from the plasma portion.

  Blood bank

  The following steps must be followed in preparation of a platelet concentrate:

  A. Whole blood centrifuged at low speed - plasma separated then centrifuged at low speed

  B. Whole blood centrifuged at high speed - plasma separated then centrifuged at high speed

  C. Whole blood centrifuged at low speed - plasma separated then centrifuged at high speed

  D. Whole blood centrifuged at high speed - plasma separated then centrifuged at low speed

  Correct Answer: C

• Question 195:

  The Bethesda assay is used to measure the titer and activity of the antibody present in a patient's sample. Prothrombin time is an initial screening procedure for bleeding disorders and a test used for monitoring anticoagulant therapy. A thrombin time is used to detect heparin interference in an aPTT mixing study. A mixing study is performed to detect the presence of a factor deficiency or coagulation inhibitor, but does not quantify the result.

  Hematology

  Which of the following tests is used to quantify a coagulation inhibitor?

  A. Prothrombin time

  B. Thrombin time

  C. Mixing study

  D. Bethesda assay

  Correct Answer: C

• Question 196:

  Cerebrospinal fluid has three main functions:

  Protect brain and spinal cord from trauma.

  Supply nutrients to nervous system tissue.

  Remove waste products from cerebral metabolism.

  Which of the following are functions of CSF? Please select all correct answers

  A. Supply nutrients to nervous system tissue.

  B. Regulate body metabolism.

  C. Protect spinal cord from injury.

  D. Remove waste products from cerebral metabolism.

  Correct Answer: ACD

• Question 197:

  Which of the following disorders is characterized by increased production of chloride in sweat? Multiple myeloma

  A. Hypoparathyoidism

  B. Cystic fibrosis

  C. Wilson's disease

  D. Down Syndrome

  Correct Answer: B

• Question 198:

  The negative antigen frequencies are used in the formula below to determine the percent of type-specific units that would be compatible for the patient. Negative antigen frequencies are determined by subtracting the percent antigen

  frequency from 100%. The negative antigen frequency for K in this case is .91 (1.00 - .09) and the negative antigen frequency for Fya is .34 (1.00 - .66).

  % compatible units available = 100 x (Neg frequency #1 x Neg frequency #2...)

  For this case, the calculation is:

  % compatible units available = 100 x (0.91 x 0.34) = 30.94 or 31%

  If the antigen frequencies for K = 0.09 and Fya = 0.66, what percent of type-specific units would be compatible for a patient with anti-K and anti-Fya?

  A. 10

  B. 43

  C. 31

  D. 92

  E. 100

  Correct Answer: C

• Question 199:

  RAST tests, or Radioallergosorbent tests, are used to screen for an allergy to a specific substance or substances if a person presents with allergy-like symptoms. The assay which is most helpful in identifying specific allergens is:

  A. Complement fixation

  B. C-reactive proteins

  C. RIA

  D. RAST

  Correct Answer: D

• Question 200:

  VLDL transports endogenous lipids, whereas chylomicrons transport exogenous (dietary) lipids. Cholesterol is transported by HDL and LDL. The function of the very low density lipoproteins (VLDL) is to transport:

  A. cholesterol from peripheral cells to the liver

  B. cholesterol and phospholipids to the peripheral cells

  C. exogenous triglycerides

  D. endogenous triglycerides

  Correct Answer: D