CompTIA CompTIA Certifications CAS-004 Questions & Answers

• Question 31:

  A help desk analyst suddenly begins receiving numerous calls from remote employees who state they are unable to connect to the VPN. The employees indicate the VPN client software is warning about an expired certificate. The help desk analyst determines the VPN certificate is valid. Which of the following is the most likely cause of the issue?

  A. The certificate has been compromised and needs to be replaced.

  B. The VPN concentrator is running an old version of code and needs to be upgraded.

  C. The NTP settings on the VPN concentrator are incorrectly configured.

  D. The end users are using outdated VPN client software.

  Correct Answer: C

  The issue described--where remote employees are unable to connect to the VPN due to warnings about an expired certificate despite the certificate being valid--is likely caused by incorrect NTP (Network Time Protocol) settings on the VPN concentrator. NTP is crucial for ensuring that the system clocks across network devices are synchronized with accurate time. Certificates have a validity period defined by start and end dates, and they rely on the system clock to determine whether they are valid or expired. If the system clock on the VPN concentrator is incorrect due to misconfigured NTP settings, the VPN concentrator may mistakenly believe that the certificate has expired when it actually hasn't. This would result in VPN clients displaying warnings about expired certificates and refusing to connect. Therefore, ensuring correct NTP configuration on the VPN concentrator is essential to resolve this issue.

• Question 32:

  A security analyst identified a vulnerable and deprecated runtime engine that is supporting a public-facing banking application. The developers anticipate the transition to modern development environments will take at least a month. Which of the following controls would best mitigate the risk without interrupting the service during the transition?

  A. Shutting down the systems until the code is ready

  B. Uninstalling the impacted runtime engine

  C. Selectively blocking traffic on the affected port

  D. Configuring IPS and WAF with signatures

  Correct Answer: C

  Selectively blocking traffic on the affected port strikes a balance between security and operational continuity. It effectively mitigates the risk posed by the vulnerable and deprecated runtime engine while allowing the banking application to remain operational until the transition to a modern development environment is completed. This approach ensures that customer service is maintained without compromising security during the transitional phase.

  While IPS and WAF are valuable security measures, they are not specifically tailored to address the risks associated with a deprecated runtime engine. Configuring IPS and WAF with signatures is more effective for protecting against specific types of attacks but may not comprehensively mitigate the vulnerabilities in the runtime engine itself. Selectively blocking traffic on the affected port directly addresses the immediate risk posed by the deprecated component without introducing potential operational disruptions or incomplete protection scenarios that could arise from relying solely on IPS and WAF.

• Question 33:

  A company has data it would like to aggregate from its PLCs for data visualization and predictive maintenance purposes. Which of the following is the most likely destination for the tag data from the PLCs?

  A. External drive

  B. Cloud storage

  C. System aggregator

  D. Local historian

  Correct Answer: D

  PLCs (Programmable Logic Controllers) are commonly used in industrial automation to control machinery and processes. They generate a significant amount of data known as tag data, which includes real-time information about variables such as temperatures, pressures, and other operational parameters.

  A local historian is a dedicated software or system component used in industrial automation environments to collect, store, and manage tag data from PLCs. The local historian typically resides on-site or within the industrial network environment. Its primary function is to capture and archive historical data from PLCs at a high frequency, providing insights into the operational history and trends of the industrial processes.

• Question 34:

  Recently, two large engineering companies in the same line of business decided to approach cyberthreats in a united way. Which of the following best describes this unified approach?

  A. NDA

  B. ISA

  C. SLA

  D. MOU

  Correct Answer: D

  Given the scenario of two large engineering companies joining forces to address cyberthreats in a united way, the most fitting description of their approach is a Memorandum of Understanding (MOU). This document formalizes their agreement to cooperate on cybersecurity matters, outlining their shared objectives, responsibilities, and possibly the methods they will use to collaborate effectively in combating cyber threats.

• Question 35:

  The Chief Information Security Officer (CISO) is working with a new company and needs a legal document to ensure all parties understand their roles during an assessment. Which of the following should the CISO have each party sign?

  A. SLA

  B. ISA

  C. Permissions and access

  D. Rules of engagement

  Correct Answer: D

  The Rules of Engagement (ROE) document is essential for ensuring all parties understand their roles, responsibilities, and limitations during an assessment. It provides a clear framework that helps prevent legal and operational misunderstandings, making it the most appropriate choice for the CISO to have each party sign in this scenario.

• Question 36:

  A security officer at an organization that makes and sells digital artwork must ensure the integrity of the artwork can be maintained. Which of the following are the best ways for the security officer to accomplish this task? (Choose two.)

  A. Hashing

  B. ECC

  C. IPSec

  D. Tokenization

  E. Watermarking

  F. Print blocking

  Correct Answer: AE

  Implementing hashing and watermarking provides a comprehensive approach to maintaining the integrity of digital artwork. Hashing allows for verification of file integrity through checksums, while watermarking embeds ownership and authenticity information directly into the artwork, deterring unauthorized use and providing proof of ownership. Together, these measures help protect the organization's digital assets and ensure that customers receive genuine and unaltered digital artwork.

• Question 37:

  A risk assessment determined that company data was leaked to the general public during a migration. Which of the following best explains the root cause of this issue?

  A. Incomplete firewall rules between the CSP and on-premises infrastructure

  B. Insufficient logging of cloud activities to company SIEM

  C. Failure to implement full disk encryption to on-premises data storage

  D. Misconfiguration of access controls on cloud storage containers

  Correct Answer: D

  During a migration, data is often moved to cloud storage containers. If these containers are not properly configured, they may be accessible to the public or unauthorized users, leading to data leaks. Misconfigurations such as setting permissions to public or not restricting access appropriately are common causes of data breaches in cloud environments.

• Question 38:

  Which of the following industrial protocols is most likely to be found in public utility applications, such as water or electric?

  A. CIP

  B. Zigbee

  C. Modbus

  D. DNP3

  Correct Answer: D

  DNP3 (Distributed Network Protocol 3) is specifically designed for use in SCADA (Supervisory Control and Data Acquisition) systems, which are commonly employed in public utility sectors such as water and electric utilities. DNP3 is known for its robustness in handling communication over long distances and in noisy environments typical of utility operations. It supports features essential for reliable and secure communication, including time synchronization, data integrity checks, and error recovery mechanisms. These capabilities make DNP3 highly suitable for monitoring and controlling remote devices and systems critical to public utilities.

• Question 39:

  A security analyst is reviewing suspicious emails that were forwarded by users. Which of the following is the best method for the analyst to use when reviewing attachments that came with these emails?

  A. Reverse engineering

  B. Protocol analysis

  C. Sandboxing

  D. Fuzz testing

  E. Steganography

  Correct Answer: C

  The most effective method for a security analyst to review suspicious email attachments is to use sandboxing. This approach allows the attachments to be executed in a safe, isolated environment, making it possible to observe any malicious activities without risking the integrity of the actual systems. Sandboxing offers a comprehensive and efficient way to analyze potentially harmful content in email attachments.

• Question 40:

  Following a Log4j outbreak, several network appliances were not managed and remained undetected despite an application inventory system being in place. Which of the following solutions should the security director recommend to best understand the composition of applications on unmanaged devices?

  A. Protocol analyzer

  B. Package monitoring

  C. Software bill of materials

  D. Fuzz testing

  Correct Answer: C

  A Software Bill of Materials (SBOM) provides a comprehensive inventory of software components and libraries used in an application or device. It lists out all the dependencies and their versions, which is crucial for understanding the composition of applications, especially on unmanaged devices. In the context of the Log4j outbreak, having an SBOM would allow the security team to identify if any vulnerable versions of Log4j or other vulnerable software components are present on the unmanaged devices. This helps in assessing and mitigating risks associated with known vulnerabilities.