CompTIA CompTIA Cloud Essentials CLO-002 Questions & Answers

• Question 1:

  Which of the following describes the process of moving an application from an isolated data center to reduce latency and ensure close proximity to end users?

  A. Replication

  B. Zones

  C. Geo-redundancy

  D. Backup

  Correct Answer: C

  Explanation: Geo-redundancy is the distribution of mission-critical components or infrastructures, such as servers, across multiple data centers that reside in different geographic locations1. Geo-redundancy acts as a safety net in case the primary site fails or in the event of a disaster or an outage that impacts an entire region1. Geo-redundancy also reduces latency and ensures close proximity to end users by delivering web content from the nearest data center2. Geo-redundancy is a common feature of cloud computing, as it provides high availability, reliability, and performance for cloud applications and services2. Replication is the process of copying data from one location to another, such as from a primary site to a secondary site, or from one cloud provider to another3. Replication is a necessary but not sufficient condition for geo-redundancy, as it does not guarantee that the replicated data is accessible or consistent across different regions3. Replication can also introduce operational complexity and data synchronization issues3. Zones are logical or physical partitions of a cloud provider's infrastructure that offer high availability and fault tolerance within a region4. Zones are usually located in the same or nearby data centers, and are connected by low-latency network links4. Zones can help distribute the workload and prevent single points of failure, but they do not provide geo- redundancy, as they are still vulnerable to regional outages or disasters4. Backup is the process of creating and storing copies of data for the purpose of recovery in case of data loss or corruption5. Backup is an important part of data protection and disaster recovery, but it does not provide geo-redundancy, as it does not ensure that the backup data is available or up-to-date in different regions5. Backup can also have longer recovery time and higher cost than geo-redundancy5. References: Use georedundancy to design highly available applications; Geo Redundancy Explained | Cloudify; Georedundancy - Open Telekom Cloud; Why geo-redundancy for cloud infrastructure is a `must have'; Geo- Redundancy: Why Is It So Important? | Unitrends.

• Question 2:

  Which of the following is a valid mechanism for achieving interoperability when extracting and pooling data among different CSPs?

  A. Use continuous integration/continuous delivery.

  B. Recommend the use of the same CLI client.

  C. Deploy regression testing to validate pooled data.

  D. Adopt the use of communication via APIs.

  Correct Answer: D

  Explanation: APIs (application programming interfaces) are sets of rules and protocols that enable communication and data exchange between different applications or systems. APIs can facilitate interoperability when extracting and pooling data among different CSPs (cloud service providers) by allowing standardized and secure access to the data sources and services offered by each CSP. APIs can also enable automation, scalability, and customization of cloud solutions. References: CompTIA Cloud Essentials+ CLO-002 Study Guide, page 163; CompTIA Cloud Essentials+ Certification Training, CertMaster Learn for Cloud Essentials+, Module 4: Management and Technical Operations, Lesson 4.3: DevOps in the Cloud, Topic 4.3.1: API Integration

• Question 3:

  Which of the following BEST describes how a cloud provider helps a company with security risk responses?

  A. Acceptance

  B. Mitigation

  C. Avoidance

  D. Transference

  Correct Answer: D

  Explanation: Transference is the best description of how a cloud provider helps a company with security risk responses. Transference means shifting the responsibility or liability for the risk to another party, such as an insurance company or a cloud service provider (CSP). By using a CSP, the company can transfer some of the security risks to the provider, who has more expertise and resources to manage them. However, the company still retains the ownership and accountability for the data and applications hosted in the cloud, and must ensure that the CSP meets the agreed-upon service level agreements (SLAs) and security standards. The company cannot transfer all the security risks to the CSP, as some risks are inherent to the cloud environment, such as data breaches, misconfigurations, or compliance violations12. References: CompTIA Cloud Essentials+ CLO-002 Study Guide, Chapter 4: Cloud Risk Management, Section 4.3: Risk Treatment Options, p. 164-1651 Cyber Risk Transfer: Can you transfer your cyber / privacy risk ... 2

• Question 4:

  Which of the following deployment models includes application components on a company's network as well as on the Internet?

  A. Private

  B. Public

  C. Community

  D. Hybrid

  Correct Answer: D

  Explanation: A hybrid cloud deployment model includes application components on a company's network as well as on the Internet. A hybrid cloud is a combination of two or more cloud deployment models, such as public, private, or community, that are connected by a common network or technology. A hybrid cloud allows the company to leverage the benefits of both public and private clouds, such as scalability, cost-efficiency, security, and control. A hybrid cloud can also enable the company to use different cloud services for different types of workloads, such as sensitive data, high-performance computing, or disaster recovery12. References: CompTIA Cloud Essentials+ Certification | CompTIA IT Certifications, CompTIA Cloud Essentials+: Essential Cloud Principles, CompTIA Cloud Essentials CLO-002 Certification Study Guide, CompTIA Cloud+ Certification Exam Objectives

• Question 5:

  A small business is engaged with a cloud provider to migrate from on-premises CRM software. The contract includes fixed costs associated with the product. Which of the following variable costs must be considered?

  A. Time to market

  B. Operating expenditure fees

  C. BYOL costs

  D. Human capital

  Correct Answer: B

  Explanation: Operating expenditure (OPEX) fees are variable costs that depend on the usage of cloud services, such as storage, bandwidth, compute, or licensing fees. OPEX fees are typically charged by the cloud provider on a monthly or pay-as-you-go basis. A small business that migrates from on-premises CRM software to a cloud provider must consider the OPEX fees as part of the total cost of ownership (TCO) of the cloud solution. OPEX fees can vary depending on the demand, performance, availability, and scalability of the cloud service. References: CompTIA Cloud Essentials+ Certification Exam Objectives1, CompTIA Cloud Essentials+ Study Guide, Chapter 2: Business Principles of Cloud Environments

• Question 6:

  When selecting a cloud provider, which of the following is MOST likely to be a financial consideration?

  A. Proof of concept

  B. Request for information

  C. Licensing models

  D. Request for proposal

  Correct Answer: C

  Explanation: Licensing models are the most likely financial consideration when selecting a cloud provider, as they determine how the cloud service is priced, billed, and consumed by the customer. Licensing models can vary depending on the type, level, and duration of the cloud service, as well as the vendor's policies and agreements. Licensing models can have a significant impact on the total cost of ownership (TCO) and the return on investment (ROI) of the cloud service, as well as the customer's flexibility, scalability, and security. Licensing models can also affect the customer's compliance with legal and regulatory requirements, such as data protection, privacy, or intellectual property rights. Therefore, customers should carefully compare and evaluate different licensing models offered by different cloud providers, and choose the one that best suits their needs, budget, and goals12 References: CompTIA Cloud Essentials+ Certification Exam Objectives3, CompTIA Cloud Essentials+ Study Guide, Chapter 2: Business Principles of Cloud Environments

• Question 7:

  D. A password that expires after 90 days and a PIN

  Correct Answer: B

  Explanation: Multifactor authentication (MFA) is a method of verifying a user's identity by requiring more than one factor, such as something the user knows, something the user has, or something the user is1. A short message service (SMS) message sent to a phone and an access PIN is an example of MFA, as it combines two factors: something the user has (the phone) and something the user knows (the PIN). This makes the authentication process more secure than using only a password, which is a single factor. Other examples of MFA include using a biometric scan (such as a fingerprint or a face recognition) and a password, or using a hardware token (such as a smart card or a USB key) and a password1. References: 1: CompTIA Cloud Essentials+ Certification Study Guide, Second Edition (LO-002), Chapter 3: Cloud Planning, Section 3.2: Cloud Adoption, Subsection 3.2.1: Identity and Access Management

• Question 8:

  A requirement states that an application must be restored within six hours. Which of the following should be included in the SLA to satisfy this requirement?

  A. MTTR

  B. RPO

  C. ROI

  D. RTO

  Correct Answer: D

  Explanation: The SLA should include the Recovery Time Objective (RTO) to satisfy this requirement. The RTO is the maximum acceptable time that an application or service can be unavailable after a disaster or disruption. It defines the target duration for restoring the functionality and performance of the application or service. The RTO is usually measured in hours or days, depending on the criticality of the application or service. In this case, the requirement states that the application must be restored within six hours, which means that the RTO should be six hours or less. The other options are not relevant to this requirement. The Mean Time to Repair (MTTR) is the average time that it takes to fix a faulty component or system. The Recovery Point Objective (RPO) is the maximum acceptable amount of data loss that can occur after a disaster or disruption. It defines the point in time to which the data must be restored. The RPO is usually measured in minutes or hours, depending on the frequency of data backups. The Return on Investment (ROI) is the ratio of the net profit to the initial cost of an investment. It measures the financial benefit of an investment over time. References: CompTIA Cloud Essentials+ Certification Study Guide, Second Edition (LO-002), Chapter 3: Business Principles of Cloud Environments, Section 3.2: Cloud Assessments, p. 103-104.

• Question 9:

  A company wants to save on cloud storage costs for data that does not need to be accessible in a timely manner. Which of the following storage types would be the BEST option?

  A. Cold

  B. Block

  C. Object

  D. Tape

  Correct Answer: A

  Explanation: Cold storage is a type of cloud storage that is designed for data that does not need to be accessible in a timely manner, such as backup, archive, or historical data. Cold storage offers the lowest cost per gigabyte of storage, but also the highest cost and latency for data retrieval. Cold storage is suitable for data that is rarely accessed, has low performance requirements, and can tolerate delays of hours or days. Cold storage can help a company save on cloud storage costs by reducing the use of more expensive storage tiers, such as hot, warm, or cool storage. Cold storage can also provide high durability, security, and scalability for long-term data retention. Cold storage is different from other storage types, such as block, object, or tape. Block storage is a type of cloud storage that stores data in fixed-sized blocks that are attached to a virtual machine as a disk volume. Block storage provides high performance and low latency for data that needs frequent and random access, such as databases, operating systems, or applications. Object storage is a type of cloud storage that stores data as objects that consist of data, metadata, and a unique identifier. Object storage provides high scalability and durability for data that needs simple and direct access, such as files, images, videos, or documents. Tape storage is a type of physical storage that stores data on magnetic tapes that are stored in tape libraries or vaults. Tape storage provides low cost and high capacity for data that needs offline or long-term backup, but also has high retrieval time and risk of data loss or degradation. References: What Is Cold Data Storage? Storing Cold Data in the Cloud, Amazon S3 Glacier Storage Classes | AWS, The Complete Guide to Cold Data Storage - NetApp, Hot Storage vs Cold Storage in 2023: Instant Access vs Archiving, How cold storage is redefining the new data era

• Question 10:

  Which of the following testing techniques provides the BEST isolation for security threats?

  A. Load

  B. Regression

  C. Black box

  D. Sandboxing

  Correct Answer: D

  Explanation: Sandboxing is a testing technique that provides the best isolation for security threats. Sandboxing is a technique that creates a virtual environment that mimics the real system or application, but isolates it from the rest of the network. Sandboxing allows testers to run potentially malicious code or inputs without affecting the actual system or application, or exposing it to external attacks. Sandboxing can help testers to identify and analyze security threats, such as malware, ransomware, or zero-day exploits, without risking the integrity or availability of the real system or application. Sandboxing can also help testers to evaluate the effectiveness of security controls, such as antivirus, firewall, or encryption, in preventing or mitigating security threats. References: CompTIA Cloud Essentials+ CLO- 002 Study Guide, Chapter 3: Cloud Service Operations, Section 3.5: Testing and Development in the Cloud, Page 125. What is Sandboxing? Definition, Types, Benefits, and Best Practices - Spiceworks1