A company has applications that need to remain available in the event of the data center being unavailable. The company's cloud architect needs to find a solution to maintain business continuity.
Which of following should the company implement?
A. A DR solution for the application between different data centers
B. An off-site backup solution with a third-party vendor
C. laC techniques to recreate the system at a new provider
D. An HA solution for the application inside the data center
Correct Answer: A
A disaster recovery (DR) solution is a set of policies, procedures, and tools that enable an organization to restore or continue its critical functions in the event of a natural or human-induced disaster. A DR solution for the application between
different data centers means that the application is replicated or backed up to another location that is geographically separated from the primary data center. This way, if the primary data center becomes unavailable due to a power outage,
fire, flood, cyberattack, or any other cause, the application can be switched over to the secondary data center and resume its operations with minimal downtime and data loss. This solution ensures business continuity and high availability for
the application and its users.
References: CompTIA Cloud+ CV0- 003 Study Guide, Chapter 5: Maintaining a Cloud Environment, page 221-222; Disaster recovery planning guide.
Question 22:
A company has a large environment with multiple VPCs across three regions in a public cloud. The company is concerned about connectivity within the regions.
Which of the following should the cloud administrator implement?
A. Peering
B. A firewall
C. Network access control
D. A load balancer
Correct Answer: A
Peering is a networking technique that allows direct and private connection between two or more cloud networks without using the public Internet. Peering can help the cloud administrator improve the connectivity within the regions by
reducing the latency, increasing the bandwidth, and enhancing the security of the data transfer. Peering can be implemented between VPCs within the same region or across different regions, depending on the CSP's offerings and the
customer's requirements. Peering can also help reduce the network costs by avoiding the use of the Internet gateways or VPNs.
References: CompTIA Cloud+ CV0-003 Certification Study Guide, Chapter 3, Objective 3.1: Given a scenario, implement cloud networking solutions.
Question 23:
A systems administrator is implementing a new version of a company's primary human- resources application. An upgrade will be performed on the production server, as there is no development environment. The administrator needs to have a plan in case something goes wrong with the upgrade.
Which of the following will work best to ensure a quick rollback in case an issue arises?
A. An application-level backup
B. A production snapshot
C. A full backup
D. A differential backup
Correct Answer: B
A production snapshot is a point-in-time copy of the state and data of a production server or instance. It can be used to restore the server or instance to the exact state it was in when the snapshot was taken, in case of a failure, error, or corruption. A production snapshot can help to ensure a quick rollback in case an issue arises during an application upgrade, as it can revert the changes made by the upgrade and restore the previous version of the application. A production snapshot can also preserve the configuration and settings of the server or instance, as well as the application data and dependencies. A production snapshot is different from a backup, which is a copy of the data only, and may not include the state or configuration of the server or instance. References: CompTIA Cloud+ CV0-003 Study Guide, Chapter 2: Deploying a Cloud Environment, page 75- 76; Snapshots vs Backups: Key Differences and Similarities.
Question 24:
A systems administrator is planning to deploy a database cluster in a virtualization environment. The administrator needs to ensure the database nodes do not exist on the same physical host.
Which of the following would best meet this requirement?
A. Oversubscription
B. Anti-affinity
C. A firewall
D. A separate cluster
Correct Answer: B
Anti-affinity is a rule that specifies that certain virtual machines should not run on the same physical host. This can help to improve availability and performance by avoiding single points of failure and resource contention. For example, if the
database nodes are running on the same host and the host fails, the entire database cluster will be unavailable. By using anti-affinity rules, the systems administrator can ensure the database nodes are distributed across different hosts in the
virtualization environment. References:
CompTIA Cloud+ CV0-003 Study Guide, Chapter 2: Deploying a Cloud Environment, page 76.
Question 25:
An organization's two-node, hybrid container cluster is experiencing failures during horizontal scaling to the cloud cluster instance. The on-premises IP range is 192.168.0.0/16, and the cloud environment is 10.168.0.0/16. Overlapping or stretched VLANs are not permitted, and a node is deployed in each location. The cloud monitoring agent reports a healthy status for the second instance, but when pinging the clusters from on premises, the following output is received:
Which of the following is the most likely reason for the scaling failure?
A. Incorrect DNS entry
B. Offline cluster node
C. Incorrect proxy entry
D. Incorrect cluster IP
E. Incorrect IP route
Correct Answer: A
Question 26:
An IT professional is selecting the appropriate cloud storage solution for an application that has the following requirements:
The owner of the objects should be the object writer. The storage system must enforce TLS encryption.
Which of the following should the IT professional configure?
A. A bucket
B. A CIFS endpoint
C. A SAN
D. An NFS mount
Correct Answer: A
A bucket Comprehensive A bucket is a cloud storage solution that allows users to store and access objects, such as files, images, videos, etc. A bucket is typically associated with object storage services, such as Amazon S3, Google Cloud Storage, or Microsoft Azure Blob Storage123. A bucket has the following characteristics that match the requirements of the application: The owner of the objects is the object writer. This means that the user who uploads or writes an object to the bucket becomes the owner of that object and can control its access permissions456. The storage system enforces TLS encryption. This means that the data in transit between the client and the bucket is encrypted using the Transport Layer Security (TLS) protocol, which provides security and privacy for the communication . A CIFS endpoint, a SAN, and an NFS mount are not cloud storage solutions, but rather network protocols or architectures that enable access to storage devices
Question 27:
A cloud engineer is responsible for a legacy web application that runs on an on-premises VM environment. The VM environment is approaching end of life. The engineer needs to migrate the web application to the cloud as quickly as possible
because the VM environment has the following limitations:
The VM environment has a single IOGB disk.
The VM environment still uses 10Mbps, which leaves a 100Mbps WAN connection underutilized.
No installation media is available.
Which of the following is the best way to migrate the web application to the cloud?
A. Use the VM import connector to import the VM into the cloud.
B. Use import/export to import the VM as a snapshot and attach it to a cloud instance.
C. Use REST APIs to import an image of the VM into the cloud.
D. Use object storage to create a backup of the VM and restore data into the cloud instance.
Correct Answer: A
A VM import connector is a tool that allows you to import virtual machines from your on-premises environment into the cloud using a graphical user interface. This is the fastest and easiest way to migrate a legacy web application without requiring installation media or changing the configuration of the VM. The VM import connector can also handle the disk size and network bandwidth limitations of the on-premises VM environment.
References: EC2 VM Import Connector | AWS News Blog, Import a VMware Virtual Machine to Oracle Cloud Infrastructure, CompTIA Cloud+ Certification Exam Objectives, Domain 2.0: Deployment, Objective 2.1: Given a scenario, execute and implement solutions using appropriate cloud migration tools and methods.
Question 28:
A web consultancy group currently works in an isolated development environment. The group uses this environment for the creation of the final solution, but also for showcasing it to customers, before commissioning the sites in production. Recently, customers of newly commissioned sites have reported they are not receiving the final product shown by the group, and the website is performing in unexpected ways.
Which of the following additional environments should the group adopt and include in its process?
A. Provide each web consultant a local environment on their device.
B. Require each customer to have a blue-green environment.
C. Leverage a staging environment that is tightly controlled for showcasing.
D. Initiate a disaster recovery environment to fail to in the event of reported issues.
Correct Answer: C
A staging environment is a type of development environment that is used to test and demonstrate the final product before deploying it to the production environment. A staging environment can help the web consultancy group avoid the issues of delivering a different or faulty product to the customers, as it can ensure that the product is fully functional, compatible, and secure. A staging environment can also help the group showcase the product to the customers in a realistic and controlled way, as it can mimic the production environment and avoid any interference from other development activities. A staging environment can be leveraged by using cloud services that allow for easy provisioning, scaling, and deployment of web applications
Question 29:
A company is concerned it will run out of VLANs on its private cloud platform in the next couple months, and the product currently offered to customers requires the company to allocate three dedicated, segmented tiers.
Which of the following can the company implement to continue adding new customers and to maintain the required level of isolation from other tenants?
A. GRE
B. SR-IOV
C. VXLAN
D. IPSec
Correct Answer: C
One possible solution for the company to continue adding new customers and to maintain the required level of isolation from other tenants is to implement VXLAN. VXLAN is a network virtualization technology that can extend VLAN by adding a 24-bit segment ID, which allows up to 16 million unique virtual segments. VXLAN can encapsulate layer 2 Ethernet frames within layer 3 IP packets, and tunnel them across the underlying network. VXLAN can provide logical isolation and security for different tenants, as well as scalability and flexibility for large cloud computing environments1.
Question 30:
A cloud engineer is deploying a server in a cloud platform. The engineer reviews a security scan report. Which of the following recommended services should be disabled? (Select TWO).
A. Telnet
B. FTP
C. Remote login
D. DNS
E. DHCP
F. LDAP
Correct Answer: AB
Telnet and FTP are two services that should be disabled on a cloud server because they are insecure and vulnerable to attacks. Telnet and FTP use plain text to transmit data over the network, which means that anyone who can intercept the traffic can read or modify the data, including usernames, passwords, commands, files, etc. This can lead to data breaches, unauthorized access, or malicious actions on the server1. Instead of Telnet and FTP, more secure alternatives should be used, such as SSH (Secure Shell) and SFTP (Secure File Transfer Protocol). SSH and SFTP use encryption to protect the data in transit and provide authentication and integrity checks for the communication. SSH and SFTP can prevent eavesdropping, tampering, or spoofing of the data and ensure the confidentiality and privacy of the server2. The other options are not services that should be disabled on a cloud server: Option C: Remote login. Remote login is a service that allows users to access a remote server from another location using a network connection. Remote login can be useful for managing, configuring, or troubleshooting a cloud server without having to physically access it. Remote login can be secured by using encryption, authentication, authorization, and logging mechanisms3. Option D: DNS (Domain Name System). DNS is a service that translates human- friendly domain names into IP addresses that can be used to communicate over the Internet. DNS is essential for resolving the names of the cloud resources and services that are hosted on the cloud platform. DNS can be secured by using DNSSEC (DNS Security Extensions), which add digital signatures to DNS records to verify their authenticity and integrity. Option E: DHCP (Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol). DHCP is a service that assigns IP addresses and other network configuration parameters to devices on a network. DHCP can simplify the management of IP addresses and avoid conflicts or errors in the network. DHCP can be secured by using DHCP snooping, which filters out unauthorized DHCP messages and prevents rogue DHCP servers from assigning IP addresses. Option F: LDAP (Lightweight Directory Access Protocol). LDAP is a service that stores and organizes information about users, devices, and resources on a network. LDAP can provide identity management and access control for the cloud environment. LDAP can be secured by using LDAPS (LDAP over SSL/TLS), which encrypts the LDAP traffic and provides authentication and integrity checks.
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