Test Prep Test Prep Certifications MCQS Questions & Answers

• Question 111:

  A patient develops recurrent episodes of gonorrhea. What should he be tested for?

  A. Terminal complement deficiency

  B. Presence of a spleen

  C. HIV

  D. Steroid use

  Correct Answer: A

  Terminal complement deficiency predisposes a patient to recurrent episodes of Neisseria infection. This includes any form, including genital and CNS infection.

• Question 112:

  A 55-year-old man has epigastric discomfort. He is seropositive for Helicobacter pylori. Upper endoscopy reveals no gastritis and no ulcer disease. Biopsy of the stomach shows Helicobacter.

  What should you do?

  A. Breath testing

  B. PPI alone as symptomatic therapy

  C. Repeat endoscopy after 6 weeks of PPIs D-PPI, amoxocillin, and clarithromycin

  Correct Answer: B

  You do not need to treat Helicobacter pylori unless there is gastritis or ulcer disease. This patient has epigastric pain and Helicobacter but no ulcer or gastritis. This is non-ulcer dyspepsia. Treat it symptomatically with a PPI. Enormous numbers of people are colonized with H. pylori; you do not need to eradicate it from the world without evidence of disease. H. pylori is not the cause of non-ulcer dyspepsia.

• Question 113:

  A 74-year-old woman is referred to osteoporosis clinic for advice on management of osteoporosis. She has a history of hiatus hernia, hypertension, hypercholesterolemia, chronic kidney disease stage 4 and COPD. She has recently been found to have osteoporosis after a Colles' fracture. She is taking calcitriol, and other medication for her comorbidities.

  Based on the information above, which would be the most appropriate agent for treatment of her osteoporosis?

  A. Denosumab

  B. Intravenous zoledronate

  C. Strontium ranelate D. Calcium and Vitamin D supplements

  Correct Answer: A

• Question 114:

  Pregnant woman with UTI which is the best antibiotics to be given if she has no allergy?

  A. Tetracycline

  B. Aminoglycoside

  C. Sulfa Trimethoprim

  D. Ampicillin

  E. Nitrofurantoin

  Correct Answer: E

  Urinary tract infections are common during pregnancy, and the most common causative organism is Escherichia coli. Asymptomatic bacteriuria can lead to the development of cystitis or pyelonephritis. All pregnant women should be screened for bacteriuria and subsequently treated with antibiotics such as nitrofurantoin, sulfisoxazole or cephalexin. Ampicillin should no longer be used in the treatment of asymptomatic bacteriuria because of high rates of resistance. Pyelonephritis can be a life-threatening illness, with increased risk of perinatal and neonatal morbidity. Recurrent infections are common during pregnancy and require prophylactic treatment. Pregnant women with urinary group B streptococcal infection should be treated and should receive intrapartum prophylactic therapy.

• Question 115:

  Which of the following is the main difference between saphenous vein grafts and internal mammary artery grafts?

  A. There is less need for aspirin and metoprolol with internal mammary artery grafts.

  B. Internal mammary artery grafts remain open for 10 years.

  C. Heparin is necessary for vein grafts.

  D. Warfarin is necessary with saphenous vein grafts.

  Correct Answer: B

  The main difference between saphenous vein grafts and internal mammary artery grafts is that vein grafts start to become occluded after 5 years but internal mammary artery grafts are often patent at 10 years. There is no difference in the need for medications.

• Question 116:

  Bitemporal hemianopia is a characteristic feature of?

  A. Retinitis pigmentosa

  B. Glaucoma

  C. Optic neuritis

  D. Pituitary tumour

  Correct Answer: D

  Pituitary tumours compress the optic chiasma and cause bitemporal hemianopia.

• Question 117:

  All of the following anti-retroviral drugs produce dyslipidemia except?

  A. Saquinavir

  B. Nelfinavir

  C. Atazanavir

  D. Amprinavir

  Correct Answer: C

  It has a neutral act on lipid profile so is suitable for those in whom hyperlipidemia

• Question 118:

  What is the most common serious complication of PM/DM?

  A. Malignancy

  B. Metabolic acidosis

  C. Phabdomyolysis

  D. Hyperkalemia

  Correct Answer: A

  For unclear reasons, the most common serious threat to life from PM/DM is malignancy. DM has a greater risk than PM. Cancer hits the cervix, lungs, pancreas, breasts, and ovaries.

• Question 119:

  A 45-year-old IV drug abuser is brought into the Emergency room with complaint of fever, shivering, malaise, dyspnea and productive cough. Exam: temp=39C, pulse=110bpm, BP=100/70mmHg. Inv: CXR= bilateral cavitating bronchopneumonia.

  What is the single most likely causative organism?

  A. Staphylococcus

  B. PCP

  C. Pseudomonas

  D. Chlamydia

  Correct Answer: A

• Question 120:

  The most common cause of SAH (subarachnoid hemorrhage) is ________________________.

  A. Trauma

  B. Congenital arteriovenous malformation

  C. Berry Aneurysms

  D. HTN

  Correct Answer: C

  Subarachnoid hemorrhage is sudden bleeding into the subarachnoid space. The most common cause of spontaneous bleeding is a ruptured aneurysm. Symptoms include sudden, severe headache, usually with loss or impairment of consciousness.