Test Prep Test Prep Certifications MCQS Questions & Answers

• Question 171:

  A young girl presented to gynecologist for assessment with lower abdominal pain and per vaginal bleedin of hysterosalpingograph as a part of her infertility treatment. Observation: BP=90/50mmHg, pulse-120bpm, and revealed rigid abdomen.

  What is the most appropriate next investigation?

  A. Coagulation profile

  B. Chest X ray

  C. Ultrasound abdomen

  D. X-ray erect and supine

  E. CT SCAN

  Correct Answer: C

  Likely cause of bleeding and shock is ruptured fallopian tube for which appropriate ne is US abdomen.

• Question 172:

  A 28 year's woman has been on treatment for Rheumatoid arthritis for 3yrs. She has gradual loss of vision Her ocular pressure is normal. Red reflex is absent in both eyes.

  What is the single most likely diagnosis?

  A. Hypermetropia

  B. Cataract

  C. Macular degeneration

  D. HTN retinopathy

  E. DM retinopathy

  Correct Answer: B

• Question 173:

  A woman with sickle cell disease complains of heavy menstrual blood loss.

  What is the most appropriate combined oral contraceptive pills?

  A. Depot provera

  B. Transdermal patch

  C. Copper IUCD

  D. Mirena

  Correct Answer: A

• Question 174:

  A 78 year's retired teacher was admitted for a hernioplasty procedure. After the operation he became agitate and confused.

  What is the most appropriate management?

  A. Diazepam

  B. Clozapine

  C. Chlordiazepoxide

  D. Thiamine

  E. Vitamin B

  Correct Answer: C

• Question 175:

  60 year's old patient has only HTN best drug to start with:

  A. Beta blocker

  B. ACEI

  C. Diuretics

  D. ARB

  E. Alpha blocker

  Correct Answer: C

  Antihypertensive therapy has been shown to reduce morbidity and mortality in older patients with elevated systolic or diastolic blood pressures. This benefit appears to persist in patients older than 80 years, but less than one third of older patients have adequate blood pressure control. Systolic blood pressure is the most important predictor of cardiovascular disease. Blood pressure measurement in older persons should include an evaluation for orthostatic hypotension. Low- dose thiazide diuretics remain first-line therapy for older patients. Beta blockers, angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors, angiotensin-receptor blockers, and calcium channel blockers are second-line medications that should be selected based on comorbidities and risk factors.

• Question 176:

  17 year's female with lump in the breast, freely mobile, not attached to the skin. What is the next investigation?

  A. Ultrasound

  B. Mammogram

  C. FNA

  D. Biopsy

  Correct Answer: B

• Question 177:

  A 20 year's woman with no previous history of ear complains, presents with 1day history of severe pain in is extremely tender to examine.

  What is the single most likely diagnosis?

  A. Chondromalasia

  B. Myringitis

  C. Furuncle

  D. Otitis media

  E. Otitis Externa

  Correct Answer: E

  Extreme tenderness to examine indicate otitis externa.

• Question 178:

  70 year's woman is admitted with diarrhea, vomiting and dehydration. Exam: yellow visual halos in her e ECG=bradycardia. She has a history of chronic Atrial-fib.

  Which drug causes the above mentioned side effects?

  A. Nifedipine

  B. Digoxin

  C. Ramipril

  D. Atenolol

  Correct Answer: B

• Question 179:

  A 3-month-old female infant is brought in because her parents say she will not eat anymore. Upon physical examination, a loud pansystolic murmur is appreciated. The child also appears small for her age, but her records show no maternal or delivery complications.

  Which of the following is the most likely finding on EKG?

  A. ST segment elevation

  B. Right ventricular hypertrophy

  C. QT interval elongation

  D. Right bundle branch block

  Correct Answer: B

  The key to this case is understanding that a child who was otherwise healthy but presents with a holosystolic murmur and symptoms of failure to thrive most likely has a VSD. Right ventricular hypertrophy occurs from blood shunting from the high pressure left system to the low pressure right system. This could later lead to Eisenmenger syndrome (ES). ES is defined as the process in which a left-to-right shunt caused by a VSD reverses into a right-to-left shunt due to hypertrophy of the right ventricle.

• Question 180:

  A patient with Type-1diabetes has a fundus showing micro-aneurysm and hard exudate.

  What is the single diagnosis?

  A. Hypertensive retinopathy

  B. Diabetic background

  C. MS

  D. Macular degeneration

  E. Proliferative DM retinopathy

  Correct Answer: B

  Diabetic background retinopathy. Microanurysm, hard exudates are seen in background diabetic ret