CompTIA CompTIA Certifications SY0-701 Questions & Answers

• Question 81:

  Which of the following considerations is the most important for an organization to evaluate as it establishes and maintains a data privacy program?

  A. Reporting structure for the data privacy officer

  B. Request process for data subject access

  C. Role as controller or processor

  D. Physical location of the company

  Correct Answer: C

  The most important consideration when establishing a data privacy program is defining the organization's role as a controller or processor. These roles, as outlined in privacy regulations such as the General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR), determine the responsibilities regarding the handling of personal data. A controller is responsible for determining the purpose and means of data processing, while a processor acts on behalf of the controller. This distinction is crucial for compliance with data privacy laws. Reporting structure for the data privacy officer is important, but it is a secondary consideration compared to legal roles. Request process for data subject access is essential for compliance but still depends on the organization's role as controller or processor. Physical location of the company can affect jurisdiction, but the role as controller or processor has a broader and more immediate impact.

• Question 82:

  Client files can only be accessed by employees who need to know the information and have specified roles in the company. Which of the following best describes this security concept?

  A. Availability

  B. Confidentiality

  C. Integrity

  D. Non-repudiation

  Correct Answer: B

  The scenario described, where client files are only accessible to employees who "need to know" the information, reflects the concept of confidentiality. Confidentiality ensures that sensitive information is only accessible to those who are

  authorized to view it, preventing unauthorized access.

  Availability ensures that data is accessible when needed but doesn't focus on restricting access.

  Integrity ensures that data remains accurate and unaltered but doesn't pertain to access control.

  Non-repudiation ensures that actions cannot be denied after they are performed, but this concept is unrelated to access control.

• Question 83:

  A security analyst is investigating an application server and discovers that software on the server is behaving abnormally. The software normally runs batch jobs locally and does not generate traffic, but the process is now generating outbound traffic over random high ports. Which of the following vulnerabilities has likely been exploited in this software?

  A. Memory injection

  B. Race condition

  C. Side loading

  D. SQL injection

  Correct Answer: A

  Memory injection vulnerabilities allow unauthorized code or commands to be executed within a software program, leading to abnormal behavior such as generating outbound traffic over random high ports. This issue often arises from software

  not properly validating or encoding input, which can be exploited by attackers to inject malicious code.

  References:

  CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 course content and official CompTIA study resources.

• Question 84:

  An important patch for a critical application has just been released, and a systems administrator is identifying all of the systems requiring the patch. Which of the following must be maintained in order to ensure that all systems requiring the patch are updated?

  A. Asset inventory

  B. Network enumeration

  C. Data certification

  D. Procurement process

  Correct Answer: A

  To ensure that all systems requiring the patch are updated, the systems administrator must maintain an accurate asset inventory. This inventory lists all hardware and software assets within the organization, allowing the administrator to

  identify which systems are affected by the patch and ensuring that none are missed during the update process.

  Network enumeration is used to discover devices on a network but doesn't track software that requires patching.

  Data certification and procurement process are unrelated to tracking systems for patching purposes.

• Question 85:

  A security team is setting up a new environment for hosting the organization's on-premises software application as a cloud-based service. Which of the following should the team ensure is in place in order for the organization to follow security best practices?

  A. Visualization and isolation of resources

  B. Network segmentation

  C. Data encryption

  D. Strong authentication policies

  Correct Answer: A

  When hosting an on-premises software application in a cloud-based service, ensuring visualization and isolation of resources is crucial for maintaining security best practices. This involves using virtualization techniques to create isolated

  environments (e.g., virtual machines or containers) for different applications and services, reducing the risk of cross-tenant attacks or resource leakage.

  Network segmentation is important but pertains more to securing network traffic rather than isolating computing resources.

  Data encryption is also essential but doesn't specifically address resource isolation in a cloud environment.

  Strong authentication policies are critical for access control but do not address the need for isolating resources within the cloud environment.

• Question 86:

  Which of the following is best used to detect fraud by assigning employees to different roles?

  A. Least privilege

  B. Mandatory vacation

  C. Separation of duties

  D. Job rotation

  Correct Answer: D

  Job rotation is a strategy used in organizations to detect and prevent fraud by periodically assigning employees to different roles within the organization. This approach helps ensure that no single employee has exclusive control over a

  specific process or set of tasks for an extended period, thereby reducing the opportunity for fraudulent activities to go unnoticed. By rotating roles, organizations can uncover irregularities and discrepancies that might have been concealed by

  an employee who had prolonged access to sensitive functions. Job rotation also promotes cross-training, which can enhance the organization's overall resilience and flexibility.

  References:

  CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Course Content: Domain 05 Security Program Management and Oversight.

  CompTIA Security+ SY0-601 Study Guide: Chapter on Risk Management and Compliance.

• Question 87:

  Which of the following describes an executive team that is meeting in a board room and testing the company's incident response plan?

  A. Continuity of operations

  B. Capacity planning

  C. Tabletop exercise

  D. Parallel processing

  Correct Answer: C

  A tabletop exercise involves the executive team or key stakeholders discussing and testing the company's incident response plan in a simulated environment. These exercises are low-stress, discussion-based, and help to validate the plan's

  effectiveness by walking through different scenarios without disrupting actual operations. It is an essential part of testing business continuity and incident response strategies. Continuity of operations refers to the ability of an organization to

  continue functioning during and after a disaster but doesn't specifically involve simulations like tabletop exercises.

  Capacity planning is related to ensuring the infrastructure can handle growth, not incident response testing.

  Parallel processing refers to running multiple processes simultaneously, which is unrelated to testing an incident response plan.

• Question 88:

  Which of the following best describes why the SMS OTP authentication method is more risky to implement than the TOTP method?

  A. The SMS OTP method requires an end user to have an active mobile telephone service and SIM card.

  B. Generally. SMS OTP codes are valid for up to 15 minutes while the TOTP time frame is 30 to 60 seconds

  C. The SMS OTP is more likely to be intercepted and lead to unauthorized disclosure of the code than the TOTP method.

  D. The algorithm used to generate on SMS OTP code is weaker than the one used to generate a TOTP code

  Correct Answer: C

  The SMS OTP (One-Time Password) method is more vulnerable to interception compared to TOTP (Time-based One-Time Password) because SMS messages can be intercepted through various attack vectors like SIM swapping or SMS

  phishing. TOTP, on the other hand, generates codes directly on the device and does not rely on a communication channel like SMS, making it less susceptible to interception.

  References: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 study materials, particularly in the domain of identity and access management.

• Question 89:

  A company that is located in an area prone to hurricanes is developing a disaster recovery plan and looking at site considerations that allow the company to immediately continue operations. Which of the following is the best type of site for this company?

  A. Cold

  B. Tertiary

  C. Warm

  D. Hot

  Correct Answer: D

  For a company located in an area prone to hurricanes and needing to immediately continue operations, the best type of site is a hot site. A hot site is a fully operational offsite data center that is equipped with hardware, software, and network connectivity and is ready to take over operations with minimal downtime. Hot site: Fully operational and can take over business operations almost immediately after a disaster. Cold site: A basic site with infrastructure in place but without hardware or data, requiring significant time to become operational. Tertiary site: Not a standard term in disaster recovery; it usually refers to an additional backup location but lacks the specifics of readiness. Warm site: Equipped with hardware and connectivity but requires some time and effort to become fully operational, not as immediate as a hot site. Reference: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Exam Objectives, Domain 3.4 - Importance of resilience and recovery in security architecture (Site considerations: Hot site).

• Question 90:

  An administrator needs to perform server hardening before deployment. Which of the following steps should the administrator take? (Select two).

  A. Disable default accounts.

  B. Add the server to the asset inventory.

  C. Remove unnecessary services.

  D. Document default passwords.

  E. Send server logs to the SIEM.

  F. Join the server to the corporate domain.

  Correct Answer: AC

  To perform server hardening before deployment, the administrator should disable default accounts and remove unnecessary services. These steps are crucial to reducing the attack surface and enhancing the security of the server. Disable

  default accounts: Default accounts often come with default credentials that are well-known and can be exploited by attackers. Disabling these accounts helps prevent unauthorized access. Remove unnecessary services: Unnecessary

  services can introduce vulnerabilities and be exploited by attackers. Removing them reduces the number of potential attack vectors.

  Add the server to the asset inventory: Important for tracking and management but not directly related to hardening.

  Document default passwords: Documentation is useful, but changing or disabling default passwords is the hardening step.

  Send server logs to the SIEM: Useful for monitoring and analysis but not a direct hardening step.

  Join the server to the corporate domain: Part of integration into the network but not specific to hardening.

  Reference: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Exam Objectives, Domain 1.1 - Compare and contrast various types of security controls (Server hardening).