Cisco CCNA 200-301 Questions & Answers

• Question 241:

  Refer to the exhibit.

  

  What are two conclusions about this configuration? {Choose two.)

  A. The spanning-tree mode is Rapid PVST+.

  B. This is a root bridge.

  C. The root port is FastEthernet 2/1.

  D. The designated port is FastEthernet 2/1.

  E. The spanning-tree mode is PVST+.

  Correct Answer: AC

• Question 242:

  Refer to the exhibit.

  

  All interfaces are configured with duplex auto and ip ospf network broadcast. Which configuration allows routers R14 and R86 to form an OSPFv2 adjacency and act as a central point for exchanging OSPF information between routers?

  A. R14# interface FastEthernet0/0 ip address 10.73.65.65 255.255.255.252 ip ospf priority 255 ip mtu 1500 router ospf 10 router-id 10.10.1.14 network 10.10.1.14 0.0.0.0 area 0 network 10.73.65.64 0.0.0.3 area 0

  R86#

  interface FastEthernet0/0

  ip address 10.73.65.66 255.255.255.252

  ip mtu 1400

  router ospf 10

  router-id 10.10.1.86

  network 10.10.1.86 0.0.0.0 area 0

  network 10.73.65.64 0.0.0.3 area 0

  B. R14# interface Loopback0 ip ospf 10 area 0 interface FastEthernet0/0 ip address 10.73.65.65 255.255.255.252 ip ospf 10 area 0 ip mtu 1500 router ospf 10 ip ospf priority 255 router-id 10.10.1.14

  R86#

  interface Loopback0

  ip ospf 10 area 0

  interface FastEthernet0/0

  ip address 10.73.65.66 255.255.255.252

  ip ospf 10 area 0

  ip mtu 1500

  router ospf 10 router-id 10.10.1.86

  C. R14# interface FastEthernet0/0 ip address 10.73.65.65 255.255.255.252 ip ospf priority 0 ip mtu 1500 router ospf 10 router-id 10.10.1.14 network 10.10.1.14 0.0.0.0 area 0 network 10.73.65.64 0.0.0.3 area 0

  R86#

  interface FastEthernet0/0

  ip address 10.73.65.66 255.255.255.252

  ip mtu 1500

  router ospf 10

  router-id 10.10.1.86

  network 10.10.1.86 0.0.0.0 area 0

  network 10.73.65.64 0.0.0.3 area 0

  D. R14# interface Loopback0 ip ospf 10 area 0 interface FastEthernet0/0 ip address 10.73.65.65 255.255.255.252 ip ospf priority 255 ip ospf 10 area 0 ip mtu 1500 router ospf 10 router-id 10.10.1.14

  R86#

  interface Loopback0

  ip ospf 10 area 0

  interface FastEthernet0/0

  ip address 10.73.65.66 255.255.255.252

  ip ospf 10 area 0

  ip mtu 1500

  router ospf 10

  router-id 10.10.1.86

  Correct Answer: D

  Router with "priority 0" and another with "priority default (1)" formed adjacency and exchanged LSAs and LSDBs normally (I tested it in P.Trace and OSPF dynamic routing works normally), the difference is that there will not be a DR Backup

  in case fail (that's all). One will be DR Other (neighbor Full/DR) and one DR (neighbor Full/DROther), and BDR appears written that it does not exist, because priority 0 cannot be neither DR nor BDR.

  (Observation: "point-to-point type" is recommended for this type of connection.)

  However, the exercise asks them to act as a central point for exchanging information, in this case "it gives the impression" that he asked us to select a "DR". Letter "D" would be the most correct because using "ip ospf priority 255" (in the

  interface) we define R14 as DR.

• Question 243:

  Refer to the exhibit.

  

  Which two values does router R1 use to determine the best path to reach destinations in network 1,0.0.0/8? (Choose two.)

  A. longest prefix match

  B. highest administrative distance

  C. highest metric

  D. lowest metric

  E. lowest cost to reach the next hop

  Correct Answer: BE

  The two values that router R1 uses to identify valid routes for the R3 loopback address 1.1.1.3/32 are:

  Lowest cost to reach the next hop: Router R1 will look for the route with the lowest cost to reach the next hop, as determined by the routing protocol being used. This is typically the metric or cost associated with the path to the next hop.

  Lowest administrative distance: If there are multiple routes with the same cost, router R1 will use the administrative distance to determine the best path. The administrative distance is a value assigned to each routing protocol that indicates

  the reliability of the routing information. A lower administrative distance indicates a more reliable source of routing information.

• Question 244:

  An engineer is configuring switch SW1 to act an NTP server when all upstream NTP server connectivity fails. Which configuration must be used?

  

  A. Option A

  B. Option B

  C. Option C

  D. Option D

  Correct Answer: B

• Question 245:

  What is the default port-security behavior on a trunk link?

  A. It causes a network loop when a violation occurs.

  B. It disables the native VLAN configuration as soon as port security is enabled.

  C. It places the port in the err-disabled state if it learns more than one MAC address.

  D. It places the port in the err-disabled slate after 10 MAC addresses are statically configured.

  Correct Answer: C

• Question 246:

  Refer to the exhibit.

  

  A Cisco engineer creates a new WLAN called lantest. Which two actions must be performed so that only high-speed 2.4-Ghz clients connect? (Choose two.)

  A. Enable the Broadcast SSID option

  B. Enable the Status option.

  C. Set the Radio Policy option to 802 11g Only.

  D. Set the Radio Policy option to 802.11a Only.

  E. Set the Interface/Interface Group(G) to an interface other than guest

  Correct Answer: BC

• Question 247:

  An engineer is configuring a switch port that is connected to a VoIP handset. Which command must the engineer configure to enable port security with a manually assigned MAC address of abod-bod on voice VLAN 4?

  A. switchport port-security mac-address abcd.abcd.abcd

  B. switchport port-security mac-address abed.abed.abed vlan 4

  C. switchport port-security mac-address sticky abcd.abcd.abcd vlan 4

  D. switchport port-security mac-address abcd.abcd.abcd vlan voice

  Correct Answer: A

• Question 248:

  Why is TCP desired over UDP for application that require extensive error checking, such as HTTPS?

  A. UDP operates without acknowledgments, and TCP sends an acknowledgment for every packet received.

  B. UDP reliably guarantees delivery of all packets, and TCP drops packets under heavy load.

  C. UDP uses flow control mechanisms for the delivery of packets, and TCP uses congestion control for efficient packet delivery.

  D. UDP uses sequencing data tor packets to arrive in order, and TCP offers trie capability to receive packets in random order.

  Correct Answer: A

  UDP does not use sequence numbers or windowing, so there is no need for a three-way handshake to set initial values. If a device using UDP becomes swamped by an excessive number of datagrams, it will simply drop those that it cannot process

• Question 249:

  Refer to the exhibit.

  

  An engineer is configuring a Layer 3 port-channel interface with LACP. The configuration on the first device is complete, and it is verified that both interfaces have registered the neighbor device in the CDP table. Which task on the neighbor device enables the new port channel to come up without negotiating the channel?

  A. Change the EtherChannel mode on the neighboring interfaces to auto.

  B. Configure the IP address of the neighboring device.

  C. Bring up the neighboring interfaces using the no shutdown command.

  D. Modify the static EtherChannel configuration of the device to passive mode.

  Correct Answer: D

• Question 250:

  Refer to Itie exhibit

  

  A network engineer started to configure port security on a new switch. These requirements must be met:

  1.

  MAC addresses must be learned dynamically

  2.

  Log messages must be generated without disabling the interface when unwanted traffic is seen Which two commands must be configured to complete this task"? (Choose two)

  A. SW(config-if)#switchport port-security violation restrict

  B. SW(config-if)#switchport port-security mac-address 0010.7B84.45E6

  C. SW(config-if)#switchport port-security maximum 2

  D. SW(config-if)#switchport port-security violation shutdown

  E. SW(config-if)#switchport port-security mac-address sticky

  Correct Answer: AE