CompTIA CompTIA Certifications 220-1101 Questions & Answers

• Question 621:

  A technician needs to fix a computer that received a non-specific error after a scheduled computer restart. Which of the following is the best way to start troubleshooting?

  A. Update all of the firmware.

  B. Roll back all of the recent updates.

  C. Review the system event log.

  D. Search for the error on the internet.

  Correct Answer: C

  The best way to start troubleshooting a non-specific error after a scheduled computer restart is to review the system event log. The system event log is a record of significant events that occur on the computer, such as errors, warnings, or

  information messages. The system event log can help identify the cause of the error and provide possible solutions.

  The answer is C.

  To learn more about troubleshooting methods and tools, you can refer to the CompTIA A+ Certification ore 1 Objectives1 or the CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) Certification Study Guide2. These resources cover the topics that are

  tested on the CompTIA A+ Core 1 exam, which is one of the two exams required to earn the CompTIA A+ certification. The CompTIA A+ certification validates your skills and knowledge as an entry-level IT professional.

• Question 622:

  Which of the following is the most likely use case for client-side virtualization for a software developer?

  A. Increasing the application performance

  B. Enhancing the security of physical machines

  C. Reducing the operational costs

  D. Testing on different operating systems

  Correct Answer: D

  Explanation: The most likely use case for client-side virtualization for a software developer is D. Testing on different operating systems. Client-side virtualization is a type of virtualization that allows a single physical machine, such as a laptop or a desktop, to run multiple virtual machines, each with its own operating system and applications. Client-side virtualization can provide several benefits, such as: Increasing the application performance by allocating more resources to the virtual machine that runs the application. Enhancing the security of physical machines by isolating the virtual machines from each other and from the host machine, and preventing malware or attacks from spreading or affecting the data. Reducing the operational costs by consolidating multiple physical machines into one, and saving on hardware, software, and energy expenses. However, the most likely use case for client-side virtualization for a software developer is testing on different operating systems. This means that a software developer can use client-side virtualization to create and run different virtual machines with different operating systems, such as Windows, Linux, or Mac OS, and test how their software works and performs on each of them. This can help the software developer to ensure the compatibility, functionality, and quality of their software across different platforms and environments. It can also help the software developer to debug and fix any issues or errors that may arise on different operating systems. For more information about client-side virtualization and its use cases, you can refer to the following web search results: [What Is Client-Side Virtualization?], [Client-Side Virtualization: Benefits and Challenges], [How Client-Side Virtualization Can Help Developers].

• Question 623:

  A user with a custom hosts file is having difficulty connecting to a locally hosted site on a small office network. The technician cannot ping the server hostname from the user's computer. Which of the following should the technician ensure on the server?

  A. The server is configured with a static IP address.

  B. The server does not have an APIPA.

  C. The appropriate services are enabled on the server.

  D. The server's secondary NIC is functioning.

  Correct Answer: A

  Explanation: A custom hosts file is a file that maps hostnames to IP addresses, allowing the user to access websites or servers by their names instead of their numerical addresses. For example, a user can add a line like 192.168.1.100 myserver.local to their hosts file and then access the server by typing myserver.local in their browser. However, this method only works if the IP address of the server does not change. If the server is configured with a dynamic IP address, which means it can be assigned a different IP address by the network router or DHCP server, then the hosts file entry will become invalid and the user will not be able to connect to the server by its hostname. Therefore, the technician should ensure that the server is configured with a static IP address, which means it has a fixed and permanent IP address that does not change. This way, the hosts file entry will always point to the correct IP address of the server and the user will be able to ping the server hostname from their computer. References: How to Add a Local DNS Lookup to Hosts File - Help Desk Geek1 Set Custom Domain Name for localhost Website in IIS - TutorialsTeacher.com2 The Official CompTIA A+ Core 1 Student Guide (Exam 220-1101) eBook, page 4-9

• Question 624:

  Which of the following is the best way to protect the data of a virtual machine in the event of hardware failure?

  A. Redundant hardware

  B. UPS

  C. Cloud-based backup

  D. RAID

  Correct Answer: C

  Explanation: The best way to protect the data of a virtual machine in the event of hardware failure is to use a cloud-based backup solution. A cloud-based backup solution is a service that copies and stores the data of a virtual machine to a remote server or storage device over the internet. A cloud-based backup solution can offer several benefits, such as: High availability and reliability: A cloud-based backup solution can ensure that the data of a virtual machine is always accessible and recoverable, even if the hardware that hosts the virtual machine fails or is damaged. A cloud-based backup solution can also provide redundancy and fault tolerance, by replicating the data across multiple locations or regions. Scalability and flexibility: A cloud-based backup solution can adapt to the changing needs and demands of the virtual machine, by allowing the user to adjust the backup frequency, retention period, and storage capacity. A cloud-based backup solution can also support different types of backup, such as full, incremental, or differential, depending on the user's preferences and requirements. Cost-effectiveness and simplicity: A cloud-based backup solution can reduce the cost and complexity of maintaining a backup infrastructure, by eliminating the need to purchase, install, or manage hardware, software, or licenses. A cloud-based backup solution can also automate and streamline the backup process, by providing easy-to-use tools and interfaces, such as web portals, APIs, or scripts. Other options, such as redundant hardware, UPS, or RAID, may improve the performance or resilience of the hardware that hosts the virtual machine, but they do not provide a complete protection for the data of the virtual machine in the event of hardware failure. Redundant hardware is a technique that uses multiple components or devices to perform the same function, so that if one fails, another can take over. UPS (uninterruptible power supply) is a device that provides backup power to a system in case of a power outage or surge. RAID (redundant array of independent disks) is a technology that combines multiple disks into a logical unit, to improve the speed, capacity, or reliability of the storage. However, these options may not prevent data loss or corruption due to other causes, such as human error, malware, or natural disasters. Therefore, a cloud-based backup solution is the best way to protect the data of a virtual machine in the event of hardware failure. References: What is Cloud Backup? | Microsoft Azure1 Cloud Backup - What is it and how does it work? | Veeam2 Cloud Backup vs. Local Backup: Which Option is Right for You?3

• Question 625:

  A technician is configuring a SOHO network. During testing, the technician receives the IP address 169.254.2.2, but the router is assigned the address scope of 192.168.1.254/24. Which of the following is most likely the cause?

  A. DHCP

  B. Ipv6

  C. DNS

  D. Ipv4

  Correct Answer: A

  DHCP stands for Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol, which is a protocol that provides quick, automatic, and central management for the distribution of IP addresses within a network1. A DHCP server can assign IP addresses and other network information to devices that request them, such as computers, smartphones, and routers2. The IP address 169.254.2.2 is an example of an APIPA (Automatic Private IP Addressing) address, which is a special type of IP address that devices use when they cannot obtain a valid IP address from a DHCP server3. APIPA addresses are in the range of 169.254.0.1 to 169.254.255.254, with a subnet mask of 255.255.0.03. Devices that use APIPA addresses can only communicate with other devices on the same local network that also use APIPA addresses3. The router in the question is assigned the address scope of 192.168.1.254/24, which means it has an IP address of 192.168.1.254 and a subnet mask of 255.255.255.04. This address scope belongs to the private IP address range of

  192.168.0.0 to 192.168.255.255, which is commonly used for local networks4. Devices that use private IP addresses can communicate with other devices on the same local network or across different networks through NAT (Network Address Translation)4. The most likely cause of the technician receiving the IP address 169.254.2.2 is that the DHCP server on the router is not working properly or is not configured correctly3. This could be due to various reasons, such as a misconfigured router, a faulty cable, a firewall blocking DHCP traffic, or an exhausted pool of IP addresses3. As a result, the technician's device cannot obtain a valid IP address from the DHCP server and resorts to using an APIPA address instead3. To fix this issue, the technician should check the router settings and make sure that the DHCP server is enabled and has enough available IP addresses to assign to devices2. The technician should also check the physical cabling and make sure it is properly connected and secured2. If the issue persists, the technician should try rebooting the router or resetting it to factory defaults2. Alternatively, the technician could manually assign a static IP address to the device that matches the router's address scope, such as 192.168.1.x/242.

• Question 626:

  Which of the following twisted pair cables supports 10GBASE-T data transmission speed?

  A. Cat 3

  B. Cat 5

  C. Cat 5e

  D. Cat 6a

  Correct Answer: D

  Explanation: The correct answer is D. Cat 6a.

  Cat 6a (augmented) is a type of twisted pair cable that supports 10GBASE-T data transmission speed. 10GBASE-T is an Ethernet standard that can deliver 10 gigabits per second (Gbps) over copper cables. Cat 6a can support this speed up

  to a distance of 100 meters, which is the same as Cat 5e and Cat 6 for lower speeds. Cat 6a has better shielding and crosstalk prevention than Cat 6, which makes it more suitable for high- frequency signals. Cat 3, Cat 5, and Cat 5e are not

  capable of supporting 10GBASE-T data transmission speed. Cat 3 can only support up to 10 Mbps, Cat 5 can only support up to 100 Mbps, and Cat 5e can only support up to 1 Gbps. These cables have lower bandwidth, higher attenuation,

  and more interference than Cat 6a.

  Reference: Network Cables - CompTIA A+ 220-1101 - 3.1 - Professor Messer IT Certification Training Courses

• Question 627:

  A technician is troubleshooting a computer that has a loud system fan and randomly freezes and reboots. Which of the following is the most likely cause of these issues?

  A. Failing hard drive

  B. Defective power supply

  C. Incompatible hardware

  D. Overheating processor

  Correct Answer: D

  Explanation: An overheating processor is the most likely cause of a computer that has a loud system fan and randomly freezes and reboots. A processor generates heat when it performs calculations, and if the heat is not dissipated properly, it can damage the processor or cause it to malfunction. A loud system fan indicates that the fan is working harder to cool down the processor, but it may not be enough to prevent overheating. A computer that freezes and reboots randomly is a common symptom of an overheating processor, as the system tries to protect itself from further damage by shutting down or restarting. The other options are not as likely to cause these issues. A failing hard drive may cause data loss, corruption, or slow performance, but it does not affect the system fan or the processor temperature. A defective power supply may cause the computer to shut down unexpectedly, but it does not cause the system fan to be loud or the processor to overheat. Incompatible hardware may cause the computer to fail to boot, display errors, or crash, but it does not cause the system fan to be loud or the processor to overheat. To troubleshoot and resolve an overheating processor issue, the technician should check and clean the air vents, provide proper ventilation, apply thermal paste, replace the fan or the heat sink, or upgrade the processor if necessary. The technician should also update the BIOS and the device drivers, adjust the power settings, and monitor the system temperature using diagnostic tools.

  References: CompTIA A+ Certification ore 1 Objectives1 The Official CompTIA A+ Core 1 Student Guide (Exam 220-1101) eBook2 How to Troubleshoot Fan Issues | Dell US3 Why your laptop fan is loud and how to fix it | Asurion4 HP Notebook PCs - Fan is noisy and spins constantly (Windows)5

• Question 628:

  A technician is installing the RAM for a graphs workstation. Which of the following is special purpose memory used by graphic controllers?

  A. SRAM

  B. MicroDlMM

  C. VRAM

  D. Unbuffered DIMM

  Correct Answer: C

  VRAM (Video Random Access Memory) is a special-purpose memory type used by graphics controllers to store image data that is displayed on the screen. VRAM is faster and more expensive than regular RAM, and it allows the graphics controller to access the image data directly without involving the CPU or the system memory. VRAM can improve the performance and quality of graphics-intensive applications, such as video editing, gaming, and 3D rendering.

• Question 629:

  Which of the following is the best example of SaaS?

  A. A company leases electric vehicles for all of its employees.

  B. An accountant pays an annual fee for the tools the company needs to work.

  C. A car breaks down, and the driver presses a button to call for help.

  D. A consultant hires a web developer to create a website.

  Correct Answer: B

• Question 630:

  Which of the following external monitor connections provides the highest possible resolution for a PC?

  A. Thunderbolt

  B. DVI

  C. VGA

  D. HDMI

  E. DisplayPort

  Correct Answer: E

  Explanation: DisplayPort is a type of external monitor connection that provides the highest possible resolution for a PC. DisplayPort supports up to 8K resolution at 60 Hz, or 4K resolution at 120 Hz, with a maximum bandwidth of 32.4 Gbps.

  DisplayPort also supports audio, multiple monitors, and adaptive sync. DisplayPort is compatible with other types of connections, such as HDMI and DVI, with adapters.

  References: The Official CompTIA A+ Core 1 Student Guide (Exam 220-1101) eBook, page 3-9.