ASCP ASCP Certifications ASCP-MLT Questions & Answers

• Question 241:

  Alpha-fetoprotein is a substance typically used in the triple test during pregnancy and for screening chronic liver disease patients for hepatocellular carcinoma. Increased concentrations of alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) in adults are MOST characteristically associated with:

  A. hepatocellular carcinoma

  B. alcoholic cirrhosis

  C. chronic active hepatitis

  D. multiple myeloma

  Correct Answer: A

• Question 242:

  A combination of (nonselective) 5% sheep blood and (selective) MacConkey agars is sufficient for the recovery of the pathogenic microorganisms that are most commonly encountered in urinary tract infections (UTIs). MacConkey is the

  selective culture medium that is most commonly used to inhibit growth of gram-positive organisms (most UTIs are caused by gram-negative organisms).

  Eosin methylene blue (EMB) is a selective agar that also inhibits the growth of gram- positive organisms. Therefore, using only a combination of MacConkey and EMB would prevent the detection of a gram-positive organism, if this were the

  cause of the infection.

  Chocolate agar or other enriched media may be needed in addition to blood and MacConkey if a more fastidious organism is suspected.

  Thayer-Martin would be used specifically for recovery of Neisseria gonorrhoeae. Thayer- Martin (or Modified Thayer-Martin) inhibits other microorganisms and allows the selective recovery of both N. gonorrhoeae and N. meningitidis.

  Microbiology

  Which culture agar combinations below will usually be sufficient for MOST routine urine culture investigations?

  A. 5% sheep blood and Chocolate

  B. 5% sheep blood and MacConkey

  C. 5% sheep blood and Thayer-Martin

  D. MacConkey and Eosin Methylene Blue

  E. Thayer-Martin and Chocolate

  Correct Answer: B

• Question 243:

  Beta-thalassemia major, also known as Cooley's anemia, has inherited two genes for beta thalassemia without a normal beta-chain gene. This disease is assoicated with a marked deficiency in beta chain production and in the production of normal Hb A. These patients exhibit increased amounts of iron due to the mutliple transfusions that keep them alive. There is also a striking increase in hemoglobin F and an elevation in hemoglobin A2. Hematology A 5-year-old African American child with hepato-splenomegaly and skeletal abnormalities has the following lab results: WBC = 4,800/cu.mm 20 NRBC/100 WBC RBC = 2.70 X 106 HGB = 6.2 g/dL Many target cells

  Marked hypochromasia, anisocytosis and poikilocytosis Serum Iron = 200 μg/dL (elevated) Sickle Solubility = negative

  Hemoglobin F = elevated

  What is the PROBABLE cause of these findings?

  A. Aplastic anemia

  B. Beta-thalassemia major

  C. Sickle cell anemia

  D. Hemoglobin C disease

  Correct Answer: B

• Question 244:

  Which of the following is most likely to interact with arterial walls, leading to deposition of cholesterol, and initiating or worsening atherosclerosis?

  A. Large buoyant LDL

  B. Small dense LDL

  C. LDL phenotype 'A'

  Correct Answer: B

• Question 245:

  Clostridium difficile is a gram-positive, spore-forming bacilli. The remaining organisms will all stain gram-negative on direct smear or smears made from culture. Which of the following organisms are gram-positive?

  A. Neisseria gonorrhoeae

  B. Brucella species

  C. Clostridium difficile

  D. Pseudomonas aeruginosa

  Correct Answer: C

• Question 246:

  Stuart Prower factor, or factor X, would cause abnormal PT, aPTT, and dRVVT test results as factor X is part of the common coagulation pathway and therefore measured in both the PT and aPTT test. In the dRVVT test, factor X is directly activated in the test principle; therefore an abnormal result would be expected in this test as well if there was a deficiency in factor X.

  What tests will be abnormal in a patient with Stuart-Prower Factor deficiency?

  A. Prothrombin Time (PT)

  B. Activated Partial Thromboplastin Time (APTT)

  C. Russel Viper Venom Test (dRVVT)

  D. a and b

  E. a and b and c

  Correct Answer: E

• Question 247:

  Platelets do not circulate in inactivated, spiny forms. The spiny, sticky form of the platelet is initiated once the platelets become activated in response to blood vessel damage. Which of the following is not true in terms of platelet characteristics?

  A. Produced in the bone marrow by megakaryocytes.

  B. Possess an inherent sticky property that aids in adhesion and aggregation.

  C. Have a lifespan of roughly 9-12 days.

  D. Are normally found circulating in their inactive, spiny form.

  Correct Answer: B

• Question 248:

  UA and Body Fluids

  What is the identification of this crystal seen in a urine with an alkaline pH?

  

  A. Uric acid

  B. Ammonium biurate

  C. Triple phosphate

  D. Calcium carbonate

  Correct Answer: B

• Question 249:

  The antiglobulin test may be omitted from the serological crossmatch if the patient's antibody screen is negative and there is no history of detection of unexpected antibodies. Blood Bank What must be true for the antiglobulin phase of the serologic crossmatch to be omitted (i.e., immediate spin crossmatch is done)? Please select all correct answers

  A. The antibody screen must be negative.

  B. The patient has not been transfused within the past 24 hours.

  C. There is no history of detection of unexpected antibodies

  D. The blood is needed for surgery

  Correct Answer: AC

• Question 250:

  Infection early in the pregnancy is the most dangerous time period for the manifestation of anomalies due to rubella. In fact, defects are rare when infection occurs after 20 weeks gestation.

  Immunology

  The greatest risk for the manifestation of anomalies in maternal rubella infection during gestation is the:

  A. first trimester

  B. second trimester

  C. third trimester

  D. delivery

  E. eighth month

  Correct Answer: A