Allergen-specific IgE, synthesized in response to allergens, becomes fixed to receptors on cellular membranes, especially those of basophils. If these receptor-bound IgE molecules are aggregated on re-exposure to specific allergen, both mast cells and basophils produce mediators that result in the allergic response. IgE-antigen interaction at the cell surface causes degranulation of cells and release of substances including: histamine, SRS-A, platelet activator, a kallikrein, and an eosinophil chemotactic factor. Basophils are the principal cells that bind IgE antibody while their number of receptor sites is proportional to serum IgE levels. Eosinophils are drawn to the site by the basophil chemotaxis mechanism, but are not the main cell which binds the IgE antibody.
Immunology
The mediator cells that bind MOST to IgE antibodies are:
A. Basophils
B. Eosinophils
C. Polymorphonuclear neutrophils
D. Macrophages
Provide the equivalent measurement for 75 milligrams. Question options:
A. 75,000 micrograms
B. 750 micrograms
C. 750,000
D. 7500 micrograms
MLTs must be provided with free immunization for:
A. hepatitis C
B. hepatitis A
C. HIV
D. hepatitis B
Bacterial contamination of platelets is most likely because they are stored at room temperature. Bacterial contamination is MOST likely in which of the following blood products?
A. Red Blood Cells
B. Red Blood Cells Frozen
C. Platelets
D. Fresh Frozen Plasma
The coagulation department tests samples for:
A. prothrombin times
B. bacterial growth
C. electrolytes
D. complete blood counts
Creatinine clearance tests are utilized to estimate the glomerular function of the kidney. The creatitine clearance calculation is defined as the volume of plasma that is cleared of creatinine by the kidney per unit of time and uses the following
formula:
creatinine clearance = Urine creatinine conc x Volume / Plamsa creatinine conc
Creatinine clearance measurements have a recommended specimen requirement = 24- hour urine collection.
Which of the following tests would be useful in the assessment of glomerular filtration:
A. 24 hour urine protein
B. Creatinine clearance
C. PSP test
D. Urea clearance
HLA-DR is a class II MHC.
HLA-A, HLA-B, and HLA-C are all class I MHC.
Which of the following antigens is classified as a Major Histocompatibility Complex
Class II antigen (MHCII)?
A. HLA-A
B. HLA-B
C. HLA-C
D. HLA-DR
The anticoagulant present in a light-blue stopper tube is:
A. Ethylenediaminetetraacetic acid (EDTA)
B. sodium citrate
C. heparin
D. potassium oxalate
The characteristic that distinguishes vancomycin-resistant Enterococcus faecium and Enterococcus faecalis from other Enterococcus species is their lack of motility.
Enterococci are all catalase-negative. Growth on bile esculin agar and in 6.5% salt broth are two characteristics that have commonly been used to identify Enterococcus to the genus level. A positive esculin in combination with a positive PYR
reaction is another approach to presumptive identification.
Which one of these characteristics distinguishes vancomycin-resistant Enterococcus faecium and Enterococcus faecalis from other Enterococcus species?
A. PYR positive reaction
B. Non-motility
C. Catalase negative
D. Growth on bile esculin agar
MCH is the average weight of hemoglobin in the average red blood cell. The value is expressed in picograms (10-12 grams).
Hematology
Hemoglobin (g/100ml) x 10 / RBC count (millions/mm3) is the formula for calculating:
A. MCHC
B. MCV
C. MCH
D. RDW
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