Emails that the marketing department is sending to customers are pomp to the customers' spam folders. The security team is investigating the issue and discovers that the certificates used by the email server were reissued, but DNS records had not been updated.
Which of the following should the security team update in order to fix this issue? (Select three.)
A. DMARC
B. SPF
C. DKIM
D. DNSSEC
E. SASC
F. SAN
G. SOA
H. MX
Correct Answer: ABC
To prevent emails from being marked as spam, several DNS records related to email authentication need to be properly configured and updated when there are changes to the email server's certificates:
A. DMARC (Domain-based Message Authentication, Reporting and Conformance):
DMARC records help email servers determine how to handle messages that fail SPF or DKIM checks, improving email deliverability and reducing the likelihood of emails being marked as spam. B. SPF (Sender Policy Framework): SPF
records specify which mail servers are authorized to send email on behalf of your domain. Updating the SPF record ensures that the new email server is recognized as an authorized sender. C. DKIM (DomainKeys Identified Mail): DKIM adds
a digital signature to email headers, allowing the receiving server to verify that the email has not been tampered with and is from an authorized sender. Updating DKIM records ensures that emails are properly signed and authenticated. D.
DNSSEC (Domain Name System Security Extensions): DNSSEC adds security to DNS by enabling DNS responses to be verified. While important for DNS security, it does not directly address the issue of emails being marked as spam. E.
SASC: This is not a relevant standard for this scenario. F. SAN (Subject Alternative Name): SAN is used in SSL/TLS certificates for securing multiple domain names, not for email delivery issues. G. SOA (Start of Authority): SOA records are
used for DNS zone administration and do not directly impact email deliverability.
H. MX (Mail Exchange): MX records specify the mail servers responsible for receiving email on behalf of a domain. While important, the primary issue here is the authentication of outgoing emails, which is handled by SPF, DKIM, and
DMARC.
References:
CompTIA Security+ Study Guide
RFC 7208 (SPF), RFC 6376 (DKIM), and RFC 7489 (DMARC) NIST SP 800-45, "Guidelines on Electronic Mail Security"
Question 142:
A systems engineer is configuring a system baseline for servers that will provide email services. As part of the architecture design, the engineer needs to improve performance of the systems by using an access vector cache, facilitating mandatory access control and protecting against:
1.
Unauthorized reading and modification of data and programs
2.
Bypassing application security mechanisms
3.
Privilege escalation
4.
interference with other processes
Which of the following is the most appropriate for the engineer to deploy?
A. SELinux
B. Privileged access management
C. Self-encrypting disks
D. NIPS
Correct Answer: A
The most appropriate solution for the systems engineer to deploy is SELinux (Security- Enhanced Linux). Here's why:
Mandatory Access Control (MAC): SELinux enforces MAC policies, ensuring that only authorized users and processes can access specific resources. This helps in preventing unauthorized reading and modification of data and programs.
Access Vector Cache: SELinux utilizes an access vector cache (AVC) to improve performance. The AVC caches access decisions, reducing the need for repetitive policy lookups and thus improving system efficiency. Security Mechanisms:
SELinux provides a robust framework to enforce security policies and prevent bypassing of application security mechanisms. It controls access based on defined policies, ensuring that security measures are consistently applied. Privilege
Escalation and Process Interference: SELinux limits the ability of processes to escalate privileges and interfere with each other by enforcing strict access controls. This containment helps in isolating processes and minimizing the risk of
privilege escalation attacks.
References:
Question 143:
A hospital provides tablets to its medical staff to enable them to more quickly access and edit patients' charts. The hospital wants to ensure that if a tablet is Identified as lost or stolen and a remote command is issued, the risk of data loss can be mitigated within seconds. The tablets are configured as follows to meet hospital policy
1.
Full disk encryption is enabled
2.
Always O"; corporate VPN is enabled
3.
ef-use-backed keystore is enabled'ready.
4.
Wi-Fi 6 is configured with SAE.
5.
Location services is disabled.
6.
Application allow list is configured
A. Revoking the user certificates used for VPN and Wi-Fi access
B. Performing cryptographic obfuscation
C. Using geolocation to find the device
D. Configuring the application allow list to only per mil emergency calls
E. Returning on the device's solid-state media to zero
Correct Answer: E
To mitigate the risk of data loss on a lost or stolen tablet quickly, the most effective strategy is to return the device's solid-state media to zero, which effectively erases all data on the device. Here's why:
Immediate Data Erasure: Returning the solid-state media to zero ensures that all data is wiped instantly, mitigating the risk of data loss if the device is lost or stolen. Full Disk Encryption: Even though the tablets are already encrypted,
physically erasing the data ensures that no residual data can be accessed if someone attempts to bypass encryption.
Compliance and Security: This method adheres to best practices for data security and compliance, ensuring that sensitive patient data cannot be accessed by unauthorized parties.
Question 144:
Company A and Company D ate merging Company A's compliance reports indicate branch protections are not in place A security analyst needs to ensure that potential threats to the software development life cycle are addressed.
Which of the following should me analyst cons
A. If developers are unable to promote to production
B. If DAST code is being stored to a single code repository
C. If DAST scans are routinely scheduled D. If role-based training is deployed
Correct Answer: C
Dynamic Application Security Testing (DAST) is crucial for identifying and addressing security vulnerabilities during the software development life cycle (SDLC). Ensuring that DAST scans are routinely scheduled helps in maintaining a secure
development process.
Why Routine DAST Scans?
Continuous Security Assessment: Regular DAST scans help in identifying vulnerabilities in real-time, ensuring they are addressed promptly. Compliance: Routine scans ensure that the development process complies with security standards
and regulations.
Proactive Threat Mitigation: Regular scans help in early detection and mitigation of potential security threats, reducing the risk of breaches. Integration into SDLC: Ensures security is embedded within the development process, promoting a
security-first approach.
Other options, while relevant, do not directly address the continuous assessment and proactive identification of threats:
A. If developers are unable to promote to production: This is more of an operational issue than a security assessment.
B. If DAST code is being stored to a single code repository: This concerns code management rather than security testing frequency. D. If role-based training is deployed: While important, training alone does not ensure continuous security
assessment.
References:
CompTIA SecurityX Study Guide
OWASP Testing Guide
NIST Special Publication 800-53, "Security and Privacy Controls for Information Systems and Organizations"
Question 145:
A security analyst is reviewing the following log:
Which of the following possible events should the security analyst investigate further?
A. A macro that was prevented from running
B. A text file containing passwords that were leaked
C. A malicious file that was run in this environment
D. A PDF that exposed sensitive information improperly
Correct Answer: B
Based on the log provided, the most concerning event that should be investigated further is the presence of a text file containing passwords that were leaked. Here's why:
Sensitive Information Exposure: A text file containing passwords represents a significant security risk, as it indicates that sensitive credentials have been exposed in plain text, potentially leading to unauthorized access. Immediate Threat:
Password leaks can lead to immediate exploitation by attackers, compromising user accounts and sensitive data. This requires urgent investi
Question 146:
A company wants to use loT devices to manage and monitor thermostats at all facilities The thermostats must receive vendor security updates and limit access to other devices within the organization
Which of the following best addresses the company's requirements''
A. Only allowing Internet access to a set of specific domains
B. Operating lot devices on a separate network with no access to other devices internally
C. Only allowing operation for loT devices during a specified time window
D. Configuring IoT devices to always allow automatic updates
Correct Answer: B
The best approach for managing and monitoring IoT devices, such as thermostats, is to operate them on a separate network with no access to other internal devices. This segmentation ensures that the IoT devices are isolated from the main
network, reducing the risk of potential security breaches affecting other critical systems. Additionally, this setup allows for secure vendor updates without exposing the broader network to potential vulnerabilities inherent in IoT devices.
References:
CompTIA SecurityX Study Guide: Recommends network segmentation for IoT devices to minimize security risks.
NIST Special Publication 800-183, "Network of Things": Advises on the isolation of IoT devices to enhance security.
"Practical IoT Security" by Brian Russell and Drew Van Duren: Discusses best practices for securing IoT devices, including network segmentation.
Question 147:
A company's SICM Is continuously reporting false positives and false negatives The security operations team has Implemented configuration changes to troubleshoot possible reporting errors
Which of the following sources of information best supports the required analysts process? (Select two).
A. Third-party reports and logs
B. Trends
C. Dashboards
D. Alert failures
E. Network traffic summaries
F. Manual review processes
Correct Answer: AB
When dealing with false positives and false negatives reported by a Security Information and Event Management (SIEM) system, the goal is to enhance the accuracy of the alerts and ensure that actual threats are identified correctly. The following sources of information best support the analysis process:
A. Third-party reports and logs: Utilizing external sources of information such as threat intelligence reports, vendor logs, and other third-party data can provide a broader perspective on potential threats. These sources often contain valuable
insights and context that can help correlate events more accurately, reducing the likelihood of false positives and false negatives. B. Trends: Analyzing trends over time can help in understanding patterns and anomalies in the data. By
observing trends, the security team can distinguish between normal and abnormal behavior, which aids in fine-tuning the SIEM configurations to better detect true positives and reduce false alerts.
Other options such as dashboards, alert failures, network traffic summaries, and manual review processes are also useful but are more operational rather than foundational for understanding the root causes of reporting errors in SIEM
configurations.
References:
CompTIA SecurityX Study Guide: Emphasizes the importance of leveraging external threat intelligence and historical trends for accurate threat detection. NIST Special Publication 800-92, "Guide to Computer Security Log Management":
Highlights best practices for log management, including the use of third-party sources and trend analysis to improve incident detection. "Security Information and Event Management (SIEM) Implementation" by David Miller: Discusses the use
of external intelligence and trends to enhance SIEM accuracy.
Question 148:
An organization mat performs real-time financial processing is implementing a new backup solution Given the following business requirements?
1.
The backup solution must reduce the risk for potential backup compromise
2.
The backup solution must be resilient to a ransomware attack.
3.
The time to restore from backups is less important than the backup data integrity
4.
Multiple copies of production data must be maintained
Which of the following backup strategies best meets these requirement?
A. Creating a secondary, immutable storage array and updating it with live data on a continuous basis
B. Utilizing two connected storage arrays and ensuring the arrays constantly sync
C. Enabling remote journaling on the databases to ensure real-time transactions are mirrored
D. Setting up antitempering on the databases to ensure data cannot be changed unintentionally
Correct Answer: A
A. Creating a secondary, immutable storage array and updating it with live data on a continuous basis: An immutable storage array ensures that data, once written, cannot be altered or deleted. This greatly reduces the risk of backup
compromise and provides resilience against ransomware attacks, as the ransomware cannot modify or delete the backup data. Maintaining multiple copies of production data with an immutable storage solution ensures data integrity and
compliance with the requirement for multiple copies.
Other options:
B. Utilizing two connected storage arrays and ensuring the arrays constantly sync:
While this ensures data redundancy, it does not provide protection against ransomware attacks, as both arrays could be compromised simultaneously. C. Enabling remote journaling on the databases: This ensures real-time transaction
mirroring but does not address the requirement for reducing the risk of backup compromise or resilience to ransomware.
D. Setting up anti-tampering on the databases: While this helps ensure data integrity, it does not provide a comprehensive backup solution that meets all the specified requirements.
References:
CompTIA Security+ Study Guide
NIST SP 800-209, "Security Guidelines for Storage Infrastructure" "Immutable Backup Architecture" by Veeam
Question 149:
Which of the following is the security engineer most likely doing?
A. Assessing log in activities using geolocation to tune impossible Travel rate alerts
B. Reporting on remote log-in activities to track team metrics
C. Threat hunting for suspicious activity from an insider threat
D. Baselining user behavior to support advanced analytics
Correct Answer: A
In the given scenario, the security engineer is likely examining login activities and their associated geolocations. This type of analysis is aimed at identifying unusual login patterns that might indicate an impossible travel scenario. An impossible travel scenario is when a single user account logs in from geographically distant locations in a short time, which is physically impossible. By assessing login activities using geolocation, the engineer can tune alerts to identify and respond to potential security breaches more effectively.
Question 150:
An organization is required to
1.
Respond to internal and external inquiries in a timely manner
2.
Provide transparency.
3.
Comply with regulatory requirements
The organization has not experienced any reportable breaches but wants to be prepared if a breach occurs in the future.
Which of the following is the best way for the organization to prepare?
A. Outsourcing the handling of necessary regulatory filing to an external consultant
B. Integrating automated response mechanisms into the data subject access request process
C. Developing communication templates that have been vetted by internal and external counsel
D. Conducting lessons-learned activities and integrating observations into the crisis management plan
Correct Answer: C
Preparing communication templates that have been vetted by both internal and external counsel ensures that the organization can respond quickly and effectively to internal and external inquiries, comply with regulatory requirements, and
provide transparency in the event of a breach.
Why Communication Templates?
Timely Response: Pre-prepared templates ensure that responses are ready to be deployed quickly, reducing response time.
Regulatory Compliance: Templates vetted by counsel ensure that all communications meet legal and regulatory requirements. Consistent Messaging: Ensures that all responses are consistent, clear, and accurate, maintaining the
organization's credibility. Crisis Management: Pre-prepared templates are a critical component of a broader crisis management plan, ensuring that all stakeholders are informed appropriately. Other options, while useful, do not provide the
same level of preparedness and compliance:
A. Outsourcing to an external consultant: This may delay response times and lose internal control over the communication.
B. Integrating automated response mechanisms: Useful for efficiency but not for ensuring compliant and vetted responses.
D. Conducting lessons-learned activities: Important for improving processes but does not provide immediate preparedness for communication.
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