A security analyst Detected unusual network traffic related to program updating processes The analyst collected artifacts from compromised user workstations. The discovered artifacts were binary files with the same name as existing, valid binaries but. with different hashes which of the following solutions would most likely prevent this situation from reoccurring?
A. Improving patching processes
B. Implementing digital signature
C. Performing manual updates via USB ports
D. Allowing only dies from internal sources
Correct Answer: B
Implementing digital signatures ensures the integrity and authenticity of software binaries. When a binary is digitally signed, any tampering with the file (e.g., replacing it with a malicious version) would invalidate the signature. This allows systems to verify the origin and integrity of binaries before execution, preventing the execution of unauthorized or compromised binaries. A. Improving patching processes: While important, this does not directly address the issue of verifying the integrity of binaries. B. Implementing digital signatures: This ensures that only valid, untampered binaries are executed, preventing attackers from substituting legitimate binaries with malicious ones.
C. Performing manual updates via USB ports: This is not practical and does not scale well, especially in large environments.
D. Allowing only files from internal sources: This reduces the risk but does not provide a mechanism to verify the integrity of binaries.
References:
CompTIA Security+ Study Guide
NIST SP 800-57, "Recommendation for Key Management" OWASP (Open Web Application Security Project) guidelines on code signing
Question 72:
During a gap assessment, an organization notes that OYOD usage is a significant risk. The organization implemented administrative policies prohibiting BYOD usage However, the organization has not implemented technical controls to prevent the unauthorized use of BYOD assets when accessing the organization's resources.
Which of the following solutions should the organization implement to best reduce the risk of OYOD devices? (Select two).
A. Cloud 1AM to enforce the use of token based MFA
B. Conditional access, to enforce user-to-device binding
C. NAC, to enforce device configuration requirements
D. PAM. to enforce local password policies
E. SD-WAN. to enforce web content filtering through external proxies
F. DLP, to enforce data protection capabilities
Correct Answer: BC
To reduce the risk of unauthorized BYOD (Bring Your Own Device) usage, the organization should implement Conditional Access and Network Access Control (NAC).
Why Conditional Access and NAC?
Conditional Access:
Network Access Control (NAC):
Other options, while useful, do not address the specific need to control and secure BYOD devices effectively:
A. Cloud IAM to enforce token-based MFA: Enhances authentication security but does not control device compliance.
D. PAM to enforce local password policies: Focuses on privileged account management, not BYOD control.
E. SD-WAN to enforce web content filtering: Enhances network performance and security but does not enforce BYOD device compliance. F. DLP to enforce data protection capabilities: Protects data but does not control BYOD device access and compliance. References: CompTIA SecurityX Study Guide "Conditional Access Policies," Microsoft Documentation "Network Access Control (NAC)," Cisco Documentation
Question 73:
A company lined an email service provider called my-email.com to deliver company emails. The company stalled having several issues during the migration. A security engineer is troubleshooting and observes the following configuration snippet:
Which of the following should the security engineer modify to fix the issue? (Select two).
A. The email CNAME record must be changed to a type A record pointing to 192.168.111
B. The TXT record must be Changed to "v=dmarc ip4:192.168.1.10 include:my-email.com - all"
C. The srvo1 A record must be changed to a type CNAME record pointing to the email server
D. The email CNAME record must be changed to a type A record pointing to 192.168.1.10
E. The TXT record must be changed to "v=dkim ip4:l92.168.1.11 include my-email.com - ell"
F. The TXT record must be Changed to "v=dkim ip4:192.168.1.10 include:email-all"
G. The srv01 A record must be changed to a type CNAME record pointing to the web01 server
Correct Answer: BD
The security engineer should modify the following to fix the email migration issues:
Email CNAME Record: The email CNAME record must be changed to a type A record pointing to 192.168.1.10. This is because CNAME records should not be used where an IP address (A record) is required. Changing it to an A record
ensures direct pointing to the correct IP.
TXT Record for DMARC: The TXT record must be changed to "v=dmarc ip4:192.168.1.10 include
com -all". This ensures proper configuration of DMARC (Domain-based Message Authentication, Reporting and Conformance) to include the correct IP address and the email service provider domain.
A cybersecurity architect is reviewing the detection and monitoring capabilities for a global company that recently made multiple acquisitions.
The architect discovers that the acquired companies use different vendors for detection and monitoring
The architect's goal is to:
1.
Create a collection of use cases to help detect known threats
2.
Include those use cases in a centralized library for use across all of the companies
Which of the following is the best way to achieve this goal?
A. Sigma rules
B. Ariel Query Language
C. UBA rules and use cases
D. TAXII/STIX library
Correct Answer: A
To create a collection of use cases for detecting known threats and include them in a centralized library for use across multiple companies with different vendors, Sigma rules are the best option. Here's why: Vendor-Agnostic Format: Sigma rules are a generic and open standard for writing SIEM (Security Information and Event Management) rules. They can be translated to specific query languages of different SIEM systems, making them highly versatile and applicable across various platforms. Centralized Rule Management: By using Sigma rules, the cybersecurity architect can create a centralized library of detection rules that can be easily shared and implemented across different detection and monitoring systems used by the acquired companies. This ensures consistency in threat detection capabilities. Ease of Use and Flexibility: Sigma provides a structured and straightforward format for defining detection logic. It allows for the easy creation, modification, and sharing of rules, facilitating collaboration and standardization across the organization.
Question 75:
A company wants to invest in research capabilities with the goal to operationalize the research output.
Which of the following is the best option for a security architect to recommend?
A. Dark web monitoring
B. Threat intelligence platform
C. Honeypots
D. Continuous adversary emulation
Correct Answer: B
Investing in a threat intelligence platform is the best option for a company looking to operationalize research output. A threat intelligence platform helps in collecting, processing, and analyzing threat data to provide actionable insights. These
platforms integrate data from various sources, including dark web monitoring, honeypots, and other security tools, to offer a comprehensive view of the threat landscape.
Why a Threat Intelligence Platform?
Data Integration: It consolidates data from multiple sources, including dark web monitoring and honeypots, making it easier to analyze and derive actionable insights. Actionable Insights: Provides real-time alerts and reports on potential
threats, helping the organization take proactive measures. Operational Efficiency: Streamlines the process of threat detection and response, allowing the security team to focus on critical issues. Research and Development: Facilitates the
operationalization of research output by providing a platform for continuous monitoring and analysis of emerging threats. Other options, while valuable, do not offer the same level of integration and operationalization capabilities:
A. Dark web monitoring: Useful for specific threat intelligence but lacks comprehensive operationalization.
C. Honeypots: Effective for detecting and analyzing specific attack vectors but not for broader threat intelligence.
D. Continuous adversary emulation: Important for testing defenses but not for integrating and operationalizing threat intelligence.
References:
CompTIA SecurityX Study Guide
"Threat Intelligence Platforms," Gartner Research NIST Special Publication 800-150, "Guide to Cyber Threat Information Sharing"
Question 76:
A company that uses containers to run its applications is required to identify vulnerabilities on every container image in a private repository The security team needs to be able to quickly evaluate whether to respond to a given vulnerability.
Which of the following, will allow the security team to achieve the objective with the last effort?
A. SAST scan reports
B. Centralized SBoM
C. CIS benchmark compliance reports
D. Credentialed vulnerability scan
Correct Answer: B
A centralized Software Bill of Materials (SBoM) is the best solution for identifying vulnerabilities in container images in a private repository. An SBoM provides a comprehensive inventory of all components, dependencies, and their versions
within a container image, facilitating quick evaluation and response to vulnerabilities.
Why Centralized SBoM?
Comprehensive Inventory: An SBoM lists all software components, including their versions and dependencies, allowing for thorough vulnerability assessments. Quick Identification: Centralizing SBoM data enables rapid identification of
affected containers when a vulnerability is disclosed.
Automation: SBoMs can be integrated into automated tools for continuous monitoring and alerting of vulnerabilities.
Regulatory Compliance: Helps in meeting compliance requirements by providing a clear and auditable record of all software components used. Other options, while useful, do not provide the same level of comprehensive and efficient
vulnerability management:
A. SAST scan reports: Focuses on static analysis of code but may not cover all components in container images.
C. CIS benchmark compliance reports: Ensures compliance with security benchmarks but does not provide detailed component inventory. D. Credentialed vulnerability scan: Useful for in-depth scans but may not be as efficient for quick vulnerability evaluation. References: CompTIA SecurityX Study Guide "Software Bill of Materials (SBoM)," NIST Documentation "Managing Container Security with SBoM," OWASP
Question 77:
An organization is looking for gaps in its detection capabilities based on the APTs that may target the industry
Which of the following should the security analyst use to perform threat modeling?
A. ATTandCK
B. OWASP
C. CAPEC
D. STRIDE
Correct Answer: A
The ATTandCK (Adversarial Tactics, Techniques, and Common Knowledge) framework is the best tool for a security analyst to use for threat modeling when looking for gaps in detection capabilities based on Advanced Persistent Threats
(APTs) that may target the industry. Here's why:
Comprehensive Framework: ATTandCK provides a detailed and structured repository of known adversary tactics and techniques based on real-world observations. It helps organizations understand how attackers operate and what techniques
they might use.
Gap Analysis: By mapping existing security controls against the ATTandCK matrix, analysts can identify which tactics and techniques are not adequately covered by current detection and mitigation measures. Industry Relevance: The ATTandCK
framework is continuously updated with the latest threat intelligence, making it highly relevant for industries facing APT threats. It provides insights into specific APT groups and their preferred methods of attack.
Question 78:
A security engineer is developing a solution to meet the following requirements?
1.
All endpoints should be able to establish telemetry with a SIEM.
2.
All endpoints should be able to be integrated into the XDR platform.
3.
SOC services should be able to monitor the XDR platform
Which of the following should the security engineer implement to meet the requirements?
A. CDR and central logging
B. HIDS and vTPM
C. WAF and syslog
D. HIPS and host-based firewall
Correct Answer: D
To meet the requirements of having all endpoints establish telemetry with a SIEM, integrate into an XDR platform, and allow SOC services to monitor the XDR platform, the best approach is to implement Host Intrusion Prevention Systems
(HIPS) and a host-based firewall. HIPS can provide detailed telemetry data to the SIEM and can be integrated into the XDR platform for comprehensive monitoring and response. The host- based firewall ensures that only authorized traffic is
allowed, providing an additional layer of security.
References:
CompTIA SecurityX Study Guide: Describes the roles of HIPS and host-based firewalls in endpoint security and their integration with SIEM and XDR platforms. NIST Special Publication 800-94, "Guide to Intrusion Detection and Prevention
Systems (IDPS)": Highlights the capabilities of HIPS for security monitoring and incident response.
"Network Security Monitoring" by Richard Bejtlich: Discusses the integration of various security tools, including HIPS and firewalls, for effective security monitoring.
Question 79:
A software development team requires valid data for internal tests. Company regulations, however do not allow the use of this data in cleartext.
Which of the following solutions best meet these requirements?
A. Configuring data hashing
B. Deploying tokenization
C. Replacing data with null record
D. Implementing data obfuscation
Correct Answer: B
Tokenization replaces sensitive data elements with non-sensitive equivalents, called tokens, that can be used within the internal tests. The original data is stored securely and can be retrieved if necessary. This approach allows the software development team to work with data that appears realistic and valid without exposing the actual sensitive information. Configuring data hashing (Option A) is not suitable for test data as it transforms the data into a fixed-length value that is not usable in the same way as the original data. Replacing data with null records (Option C) is not useful as it does not provide valid data for testing. Data obfuscation (Option D) could be an alternative but might not meet the regulatory requirements as effectively as tokenization. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide NIST SP 800-57 Part 1 Rev. 5, "Recommendation for Key Management" PCI DSS Tokenization Guidelines
Question 80:
An organization is implementing Zero Trust architecture A systems administrator must increase the effectiveness of the organization's context-aware access system. Which of the following is the best way to improve the effectiveness of the system?
A. Secure zone architecture
B. Always-on VPN
C. Accurate asset inventory
D. Microsegmentation
Correct Answer: D
Microsegmentation is a critical strategy within Zero Trust architecture that enhances context-aware access systems by dividing the network into smaller, isolated segments. This reduces the attack surface and limits lateral movement of
attackers within the network. It ensures that even if one segment is compromised, the attacker cannot easily access other segments. This granular approach to network security is essential for enforcing strict access controls and monitoring
within Zero Trust environments.
Reference: CompTIA SecurityX Study Guide, Chapter on Zero Trust Security, Section on Microsegmentation and Network Segmentation.
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