CompTIA CompTIA Cloud+ CV0-003 Questions & Answers

• Question 1:

  A cloud administrator received a request to provision a set of cloud resources in an effort to switch to infrastructure as code to automate and optimize operations. The administrator decides to try to run some tests with the following definition:

  

  Which of the following is the most likely cause of the issue?

  A. The cloud provider is expecting the private key.

  B. The incorrect resource name was used.

  C. The environment variable for the public key path has not been set.

  D. An unexpected variable was provided.

  Correct Answer: C

  The error message indicates that the cloud provider is unable to find the public key file that is specified in the definition. The definition uses an environment variable called PUBLIC_KEY_PATH to refer to the location of the public key file. However, if this environment variable has not been set or exported in the shell, the cloud provider will not be able to resolve it and will fail to provision the resources. To fix this issue, the cloud administrator should set and export the environment variable for the public key path before running the definition. References: [CompTIA Cloud+ CV0-003 Certification Study Guide], Chapter 8, Objective 8.1: Given a scenario, implement cloud automation and orchestration.

• Question 2:

  A startup online gaming company is designing the optimal graphical user experience for multiplayer scenarios. However, online players have reported latency issues. Which of the following should the company configure as a remediation?

  A. Additional GPU memory

  B. Faster clock speed

  C. Additional CPU cores

  D. Dynamic allocations

  Correct Answer: B

  The best option to improve the graphical user experience for multiplayer scenarios for an online gaming company is to use faster clock speed for the CPU or GPU. The clock speed is a measure of how fast a CPU or GPU can process

  instructions per second. A faster clock speed can enhance the performance and quality of graphics by rendering more frames per second, reducing latency, and increasing resolution. Reference:

  [CompTIA Cloud+ Certification Exam Objectives], Domain 3.0 Maintenance, Objective 3.3 Given a scenario, analyze system performance using standard tools.

• Question 3:

  Which of the following would be the BEST option for discussion of what individuals should do in an incident response or disaster recovery scenario?

  A. A business continuity plan

  B. Incident response/disaster recovery documentation

  C. A tabletop exercise

  D. A root cause analysis

  Correct Answer: C

  A tabletop exercise is the best option for discussion of what individuals should do in an incident response or disaster recovery scenario. A tabletop exercise is a simulated scenario that involves key stakeholders and decision-makers who review and discuss their roles and responsibilities in response to an emergency situation or event. A tabletop exercise can help to test and evaluate plans, procedures, policies, training, and communication.

• Question 4:

  A DevOps administrator is automating an existing software development workflow. The administrator wants to ensure that prior to any new code going into production, tests confirm the new code does not negatively impact existing automation activities.

  Which of the following testing techniques would be BEST to use?

  A. Usability testing

  B. Regression testing

  C. Vulnerability testing

  D. Penetration testing

  Correct Answer: B

  Regression testing is a type of testing that ensures that new code or changes to existing code do not break or degrade the functionality of the software. Regression testing is often used in software development workflows to verify that new features or bug fixes do not introduce new errors or affect the performance of the software. Regression testing can help prevent negative impacts on existing automation activities by checking that the new code is compatible with the existing code and does not cause any unexpected failures or errors. References: CompTIA Cloud+ Certification Exam Objectives, page 19, section 4.1 Reference: https://www.softwaretestinghelp.com/regression-testing-tools-and-methods/

• Question 5:

  A systems administrator is implementing a new file storage service that has been deployed in the company's private cloud instance. The key requirement is fast read/write times for the targeted users, and the budget for this project is not a concern. Which of the following storage types should the administrator deploy?

  A. Spinning disks

  B. NVMe

  C. SSD

  D. Hybrid

  Correct Answer: B

• Question 6:

  A cloud engineer, who manages workloads in a public cloud environment, uses autoscaling to maintain availability of a critical application. During a recent burst in demands, the engineer received the following error alert:

  LimitedInstanceCapacity

  Which of the following is MOST likely cause of the error?

  A. The cloud account has a misconfigured security group.

  B. The cloud account has exhausted the number of instances quota.

  C. The cloud account has had rights revoked to create instances.

  D. The autoscaling feature does not have permissions to create instances.

  Correct Answer: B

• Question 7:

  A non-critical file on a database server was deleted and needs to be recovered. A cloud administrator must use the least disruptive restoration process to retrieve the file, as the database server cannot be stopped during the business day. Which of the following restoration methods would BEST accomplish this goal?

  A. Alternate location

  B. Restore from image

  C. Revert to snapshot

  D. In-place restoration

  Correct Answer: A

• Question 8:

  A company has entered into a business relationship with another organization and needs to provide access to internal resources through directory services. Which of the following should a systems administrator implement?

  A. SSO

  B. VPN

  C. SSH

  D. SAML

  Correct Answer: D

• Question 9:

  A company is planning its cloud architecture and wants to use a VPC for each of its three products per environment in two regions, totaling 18 VPCs. The products have interdependences, consuming services between VPCs. Which of the following should the cloud architect use to connect all the VPCs?

  A. MPLS connections

  B. VPC peering

  C. Hub and spoke

  D. VPN connections

  Correct Answer: C

  The best way to connect all the VPCs for the company that is planning its cloud architecture and wants to use a VPC for each of its three products per environment in two regions, totaling 18 VPCs, is to use a hub and spoke model. A hub and spoke model is a networking model that uses a central hub VPC that connects to multiple spoke VPCs that host the products or workloads. The hub VPC can provide common services and security policies for the spoke VPCs, such as network virtual appliances, DNS servers, firewalls, or VPN gateways. The spoke VPCs can communicate with each other through the hub VPC, using private IP addresses or peering connections. A hub and spoke model can simplify the management and scalability of the network, as well as reduce the costs and complexity of peering multiple VPCs directly. Reference: Hub-and-spoke network topology - Cloud Adoption Framework

• Question 10:

  A cloud administrator receives an email stating the following:

  “Clients are receiving emails from our web application with non-encrypted links.”

  The administrator notices that links generated from the web application are opening in http://. Which of the following should be configured to redirect the traffic to https://?

  A. User account access

  B. Programming code

  C. Web server configuration

  D. Load balancer setting

  Correct Answer: C