CompTIA CompTIA Certifications CV0-004 Questions & Answers

• Question 101:

  Which of the following describes the main difference between public and private container repositories?

  A. Private container repository access requires authorization, while public repository access does not require authorization.

  B. Private container repositories are hidden by default and containers must be directly referenced, while public container repositories allow browsing of container images.

  C. Private container repositories must use proprietary licenses, while public container repositories must have open-source licenses.

  D. Private container repositories are used to obfuscate the content of the Dockerfile, while public container repositories allow for Dockerfile inspection.

  Correct Answer: A

  The main difference between public and private container repositories lies in access control. Public repositories allow users to download and use container images without requiring any authorization, making them accessible to anyone. On

  the other hand, private repositories require users to have proper authorization, usually through credentials, to access the container images, thus providing a level of privacy and security control.

  References: CompTIA Cloud+ Guide to Cloud Computing (ISBN: 978-1-64274-282-2)

• Question 102:

  Which of the following technologies should be used by a person who is visually impaired to access data from the cloud?

  A. Object character recognition

  B. Text-to-voice

  C. Sentiment analysis

  D. Visual recognition

  Correct Answer: B

  Text-to-voice (or text-to-speech) technology should be used by a person who is visually impaired to access data from the cloud. It converts text data into audible speech, allowing visually impaired individuals to receive the information audibly. References: CompTIA Accessibility in IT Study Guide.

• Question 103:

  Users have been reporting that a remotely hosted application is not accessible following a recent migration. However, the cloud administrator is able to access the application from the same site as the users.

  Which of the following should the administrator update?

  A. Cipher suite

  B. Network ACL

  C. Routing table

  D. Permissions

  Correct Answer: C

  Since the cloud administrator can access the application from the same site but users cannot, it suggests a possible issue with the network routing. The routing table may need to be updated to ensure that traffic from the users' location is

  correctly directed to the new location of the remotely hosted application after the migration.

  References:CompTIA Network+ Certification Study Guide by Glen E. Clarke.

• Question 104:

  Which of the following Al/ML technologies consumes text input to discern tone?

  A. Text recognition

  B. Computer vision

  C. Visual recognition

  D. Sentiment analysis

  Correct Answer: D

  Sentiment analysis is an AI/ML technology that processes text to determine the tone. It helps in understanding the sentiments behind the words by analyzing the text input, which can be positive, negative, or neutral. References: CompTIA Cloud+ Study Guide (V0-004) - Chapter on Cloud Technologies and Applications

• Question 105:

  A cloud administrator needs to distribute workloads across remote data centers for redundancy reasons. Which of the following deployment strategies would eliminate downtime, accelerate deployment, and remain cost efficient?

  A. In-place

  B. Rolling

  C. Blue-green

  D. Canary

  Correct Answer: C

  Blue-green deployment is the strategy that can eliminate downtime, accelerate deployment, and remain cost-efficient. It involves running two identical production environments, only one of which is live at any given time (blue or green). When it's time to deploy, the new version is released to the inactive environment (green), which is then thoroughly tested. Once ready, the traffic is switched over, making the green environment live. References: Deployment strategies and their impact on operations are a significant topic within the CompTIA Cloud+ examination objectives.

• Question 106:

  A company has developed an online trading platform. The engineering team selected event-based scaling for the platform's underlying resources. The platform resources scale up with every 2,000 subscribed users. The engineering team finds out that although compute utilization is low, scaling is still occurring.

  Which of the following statements best explains why this is the case?

  A. Event-based scaling does not scale down resources.

  B. Event-based scaling should not be triggered at the 2,000-user frequency.

  C. Event-based scaling should not track user subscriptions.

  D. Event-based scaling does not take resource load into account.

  Correct Answer: D

  Event-based scaling triggers based on specific events, such as the number of user subscriptions in this case. It does not necessarily account for the actual load or utilization of compute resources. This is why the platform's resources continue to scale up even though compute utilization is low; the scaling decision is being made based on the number of subscribed users rather than the current resource usage. References: CompTIA Cloud+ Certification Study Guide (V0-004) by Scott Wilson and Eric Vanderburg

• Question 107:

  A healthcare organization must follow strict compliance requirements to ensure that Pll is not leaked. The cloud administrator needs to ensure the cloud email system can support this requirement. Which of the following should the organization enable?

  A. IPS

  B. OLP

  C. ACL

  D. WAF

  Correct Answer: B

  To ensure that Personally Identifiable Information (PII) is not leaked and to comply with strict healthcare regulations, the organization should enable Data Loss Prevention (DLP). DLP systems are designed to detect and prevent unauthorized access or sharing of sensitive data, making them ideal for securing PII in cloud email systems and ensuring compliance with healthcare industry standards. References: CompTIA Cloud+ content covers governance, risk, compliance, and security aspects of cloud computing, highlighting the role of DLP in safeguarding sensitive information and maintaining compliance in regulated industries like healthcare.

• Question 108:

  Users report being unable to access an application that uses TLS 1.1. The users are able to access other applications on the internet.

  Which of the following is the most likely reason for this issue?

  A. The security team modified user permissions.

  B. Changes were made on the web server to address vulnerabilities.

  C. Privileged access was implemented.

  D. The firewall was modified.

  Correct Answer: B

  If users are unable to access an application that uses TLS 1.1 but can access other internet applications, it is likely that changes were made on the web server to address vulnerabilities, such as disabling outdated and less secure protocols like TLS 1.1. References: CompTIA Cloud+ Study Guide (V0-004) - Chapter on Cloud Security

• Question 109:

  A developer is building a new application version using a CI/CD pipeline. The developer receives the following error message log when the build fails: Which of the following is the most likely cause of this failure?

  

  A. Incorrect version

  B. Test case failure

  C. Broken build pipeline

  D. Dependency issue

  Correct Answer: D

  The error message indicates that the 'requests' module, which is a dependency, is not found. The failure is most likely due to the 'requests' library not being installed or not included in the environment where the application is running. References: Dependency management is a crucial part of maintaining a CI/CD pipeline, a topic included in the CompTIA Cloud+ examination objectives.

• Question 110:

  A cloud engineer needs to deploy a new version of a web application to 100 servers. In the past, new version deployments have caused outages.

  Which of the following deployment types should the cloud engineer implement to prevent the outages from happening this time?

  A. Rolling

  B. Blue-green

  C. Canary

  D. Round-robin

  Correct Answer: C

  A canary deployment is a pattern that reduces the risk of introducing a new software version in production by slowly rolling out the change to a small subset of users before rolling it out to the entire infrastructure. It's an effective strategy to

  prevent outages since it allows for monitoring and quick rollback if issues arise without affecting all users.

  References: Canary releases are part of deployment strategies that can help mitigate the risk of outages during updates, a concept included in the CompTIA Cloud+ curriculum.