CompTIA CompTIA Certifications FC0-U51 Questions & Answers

• Question 61:

  Rick works as your assistant. He is configuring a computer running Windows XP Professional to connect to a network. He needs to get IP information in the command prompt. He asks you about the usage and brief description of various switches used with a command.

  Which of the following command switches will you suggest that he use to get the required information of the command?

  A. [command] /<

  B. [command] /+

  C. [command] />

  D. [command] /?

  Correct Answer: D

  The /? switch with a command is used to get a brief description of the command usage and its switches.

  Answer options C, B, and A are incorrect. These command switches are not used for getting a brief description of a command.

  

• Question 62:

  Which of the following are types of Random Access Memory (RAM) ? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.

  A. EDO RAM

  B. DRAM

  C. SRAM

  D. VRAM

  E. NRAM

  Correct Answer: ABD

  These are the type of Random Access Memory: DRAM EDO RAM SRAM VRAM What is the function of DRAM? Hide Dynamic Random Access Memory (DRAM) is used as the primary memory for computers and workstations. It requires having its storage cells refreshed or given a new electronic charge every few milliseconds. What is an EDO RAM? Hide EDO RAM stands for Extended Data Out RAM. It is a type of memory, which improves performance of the computer by eliminating memory wait states. What is the function of SRAM? Hide Static Random Access Memory (SRAM) is used for a computer's cache memory and as part of the random access memory digital-to-analog converter on a video card. Unlike DRAM, SRAM does not have to be periodically refreshed. SRAM retains data bits in its memory as long as power is being supplied. SRAM is significantly faster and more expensive than DRAM. What is VRAM? Hide VRAM, also known as Video RAM, is used to store image data for processing by the video adapter. It is the memory that stores information about the pictures that display on the monitor screen. Answer option E is incorrect. There is no RAM such as NRAM.

• Question 63:

  Which of the following statements about the DVI-D connector are true? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose three.

  A. It is used only for digital signal connections.

  B. Its single link connector contains 18 pins.

  C. It is used for both digital and analog signal connections.

  D. Its dual link connector contains 24 pins.

  Correct Answer: ABD

  The DVI-D is a type of DVI connector. This connector is used only for digital signal connections. DVI-D connectors come in dual and single links. The dual link connector contains 24 pins, whereas the single link connector comes with 18 pins.

  DVI stands for Digital Visual Interface. It is a standard for high speed, high resolution digital display invented by Digital Display Working Group (DDWG). DVI accommodates analog and digital interfaces with a single connector. New video

  cards have DVI as well as VGA ports built into them. Most of LCD monitors come with a 15-pin VGA connection cable, even if they are capable of handling digital signals coming from DVI connections. However, some monitors come with both

  types of cables. DVI has three main categories of connectors. They are: DVI-A, DVI-D, and DVI-I. DVI-A is an analog-only connector, DVI-D is a digital-only connector, and DVI-I is an analog/digital connector. DVI-D and DVI-I connectors are

  of two types: single link and dual link. DVI supports UXGA and HDTV with a single set of links. Higher resolutions such as 1920 x 1080, 2048 x 1536, or more can be supported with dual links.

  Answer option C is incorrect. The DVI-I connector supports both digital and analog signal connections.

  Reference: "http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/DVI"

• Question 64:

  You are responsible for technical support at a hospital. Recently, all computers have been upgraded to Windows Vista 64 bit. However, you have a particular custom application that runs only in 32 bit.

  What should you do?

  A. You will have to uninstall the upgraded operating system.

  B. Use compatibility mode to run the 32-bit application.

  C. You will need a 32-bit version of Vista, not 64 bit.

  D. You will need to get the upgraded 64-bit version of the application.

  Correct Answer: B

  You can right-click on a programs icon and go to properties. There you will find a compatibility mode tab. This will allow you to run individual programs in 32 bit. Answer options C and A are incorrect. You can run the 32-bit application on the

  64 bit Vista using certain applications.

  Answer option D is incorrect. Software vendors do not immediately release new products for newer versions of Windows.

  Reference: http://www.howtogeek.com/howto/windows-vista/using-windows-vista- compatibilitymode/

• Question 65:

  Which of the following types of fire extinguishers are needed for combustible liquids' fire such as gasoline and kerosene?

  A. Class C

  B. Class B

  C. Class D

  D. Class A

  Correct Answer: B

  Class B extinguishers are needed for flammable or combustible liquids' fire such as gasoline, kerosene, grease, and oil. The numerical rating for a class B extinguisher indicates the approximate area, in square feet, in which it can extinguish fire. Carbon Dioxide extinguishers are used for class B and C fires. Answer option D is incorrect. Class A extinguishers are needed for ordinary flammable materials' fire such as paper, wood, cardboard, and most plastics. Answer option A is incorrect. Class C fire extinguishers are needed for electrical fires. The electrical fire involves electrical equipments, such as appliances, wiring, and circuit breakers. Water should not be used as an extinguisher for this type of fire. Carbon Dioxide is a good choice as an extinguisher for an electrical fire on a computer or other electronic device such as television. Answer option C is incorrect. Class D extinguishers are needed for combustible metals' fire such as magnesium, titanium, potassium, and sodium.

• Question 66:

  Which of the following is a fake target that deters hackers from locating your real network?

  A. Honeypot

  B. KFSensor

  C. Malware

  D. Spyware

  Correct Answer: A

  A honeypot is a term in computer terminology used for a trap that is set to detect, deflect, or in some manner counteract attempts at unauthorized use of information systems. Generally it consists of a computer, data, or a network site that appears to be part of a network, but is actually isolated, and monitored, and which seems to contain information or a resource of value to attackers. Answer option B is incorrect. KFSensor is a Windows-based honeypot Intrusion Detection System (IDS). It acts as a honeypot to attract and log potential hackers by simulating vulnerable system services and Trojans. It has highly configurable features of detailed logging, analysis of attack, and security alerts. When using the KFSensor, a user can create different types of scenarios, such as what action should be taken when access to a honeypot is attempted. KFSensor contains many innovative and unique features, such as remote management, a Snort compatible signature engine, and emulations of real servers (e.g. FTP, POP3, HTTP, Telnet and SMTP) to deceive the hacker and gain more valuable information about his motives. Answer option C is incorrect. The term malware refers to malicious software, which is a broad class of malicious viruses, including spyware. Malware is designed to infiltrate or damage a computer without the consent of the owner. Answer option D is incorrect. Spyware is a program that takes partial control over a user's computer without user's permission. Spyware programs can collect various types of personal information, such as Internet surfing habits, and Web sites that the user has visited. Spyware programs can also interfere with the control of a user's computer, such as installing additional software, redirecting Web browser activities, accessing Web sites blindly, etc.

• Question 67:

  You are responsible for the laptops used by travelling sales people in your company. These all laptops use Windows XP. You want the machines to go to a lower power state when they have been inactive for more than 10 minutes and are running on battery. The sales people complain that when their laptops go inactive they want them to return to active state very quickly.

  Which low power state should you use?

  A. Low Power

  B. Sleep

  C. Standby

  D. Hibernate

  Correct Answer: C

  Standby stores all the data, open programs, and settings in RAM, but then moves to a very low power state. While the laptop is still using power it is doing so at a much slower rate. The laptop can return to a fully active state very quickly. The standby mode is a power saving feature for computers. In this mode, a computer does not shut down completely. The computer goes to low power state and, as a result, it consumes less power. When the computer resumes from the standby mode, full power is restored to its devices. During the standby mode, if the power supply is disconnected or interrupted, data might be lost. The standby mode is available automatically on ACPI- enabled or APM-enabled computers. Users do not need to enable this mode manually. This mode is not available in non-ACPI and non-APM based computers. Answer option D is incorrect. It is a low power state but saves all data and open programs to the hard disk and the laptop shuts down. This takes significantly more time to return to an active state. What is hibernate mode? Hide Hibernate mode is a power saving feature for computers. In hibernate mode, the current state of a computer is saved to the hard disk, and the computer shuts down. A user will have to power on the computer to restore the previous settings. When a computer resumes from hibernate mode, it reads the saved settings from the disk and restores the system state as it was before it entered hibernate mode. By default, hibernate mode is disabled. If a computer is not ACPI-enabled or APM-enabled, users will have to enter hibernate mode manually. Users cannot set the computer to automatically hibernate after a certain time. With ACPI-enabled and APM- enabled computers, users are able to set hibernate mode automatically. Answer option A is incorrect. Low power is not an actual power mode. Answer option B is incorrect. Sleep only exists in Windows Vista. Reference:

  http://www.timeatlas.com/mos/Term_to_Learn/General/Understanding_Differences_Betwe en_Hibernate_and_Stand_By/

• Question 68:

  Which type of memory chip has 168 pins?

  A. DMA

  B. DIMM

  C. DIP

  D. SIMM

  Correct Answer: B

  The Dual inline memory module (DIMM) has 168 pins. 168-pin Dual inline memory module (DIMM)

  

• Question 69:

  Which of the following typically involves the provision of dynamically scalable and often virtualized resources as a service over the Internet?

  A. Thin client

  B. Cloud computing

  C. Application Virtualization

  D. Terminal services

  Correct Answer: B

  Cloud computing typically involves the provision of dynamically scalable and often virtualized resources as a service over the Internet. It provides common business applications online that are accessed from a web browser, while the software and data are stored on the servers. Answer option A is incorrect. A thin client is a low-cost computer, often legacy desktops, with limited resources. Thin clients run the latest operating systems (Windows 2000 Server and Windows Server 2003) and applications through special software such as the Terminal Services application. There is no requirement to install and configure applications on each computer, as the software are installed and configured in a centralized location on the server. Hence, the maintenance tasks are centralized. Answer option D is incorrect. Terminal Services is a multisession environment that provides remote computers access to Windows-based programs running on a server. When a user runs a program on a Terminal Server, the application execution takes place on the server, and only the keyboard, mouse and display information are transmitted over the network. Each user sees only his individual session, which is managed transparently by the server operating system, and is independent of any other client session. Answer option C is incorrect. Application virtualization is an umbrella term that describes software technologies that improve portability, manageability and compatibility of applications by encapsulating them from the underlying operating system on which they are executed. Reference: " http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Cloud_computing"

• Question 70:

  Which of the following is considered an open-source operating system?

  A. Windows

  B. Chrome OS

  C. Mac OS X

  D. Linux

  Correct Answer: D