CompTIA CompTIA Certifications SK0-005 Questions & Answers

• Question 401:

  Hackers recently targeted a company with an attack that resulted in a system breach, which compromised the organization's data. Because of the system breach, the administrator had to bypass normal change management procedures. Which of the following change management activities was necessary?

  A. Cancelled change request

  B. Change request postponement

  C. Emergency change request

  D. Privilege change request

  E. User permission change request

  Correct Answer: C

  An emergency change request is a type of change request that is initiated in response to an urgent situation, such as a system breach, that requires immediate action to restore normal operations or prevent further damage. An emergency

  change request may bypass some of the normal change management procedures, such as approval, testing, or documentation, in order to expedite the implementation of the change. However, an emergency change request should still

  follow the basic steps of change management, such as identification, analysis, planning, execution, and evaluation, and should be reviewed and documented after the change is completed.

  References: CompTIA Server+ Study Guide, Chapter 11: Change Management, page 443.

• Question 402:

  Which of the following licensing models allows the greatest number of concurrent Windows VMS to run on a host for the lowest cost?

  A. per user

  B. per core

  C. Per instance

  D. Per concurrent user

  Correct Answer: A

  The answer to this question may depend on several factors, such as the number and type of Windows VMs, the number and type of host machines, the number and type of users, and the specific licensing terms and conditions of each licensing model. However, based on the information available from the web search results, one possible answer is per user. Per user licensing model is a licensing model that allows a user to access Windows VMs from any device, regardless of the number of devices or VMs. Per user licensing model is available for Windows 10 Enterprise E3/E5, Windows VDA E3/E5, and Microsoft 365 F3/E3/E5. Per user licensing model may offer the greatest number of concurrent Windows VMs to run on a host for the lowest cost if the following conditions are met: The user needs to access multiple Windows VMs from different devices, such as desktops, laptops, tablets, or smartphones. The user needs to access Windows VMs that run different versions or editions of Windows, such as Windows 10 Enterprise, Windows 10 Pro, or Windows 7 Enterprise. The user needs to access Windows VMs that run on different types of host machines, such as physical servers, virtual servers, or cloud servers. The user does not need to access Windows VMs that run on dedicated hardware or have specific performance or security requirements. According to the web search results1, per user licensing model costs $84 per user per year for Windows 10 Enterprise E3, $168 per user per year for Windows 10 Enterprise E5, $100.80 per user per year for Windows VDA E3, and $196.80 per user per year for Windows VDA E5.These prices are based on the Open License Program and may vary depending on the volume and agreement level2 Per core licensing model is a licensing model that requires a license for each core of the processor on the host machine that runs Windows VMs. Per core licensing model is available for Windows Server 2022 Datacenter and Standard editions. Per core licensing model may offer a lower cost than per user licensing model if the following conditions are met: The host machine has a low number of cores or a high core density. The host machine runs a high number of Windows VMs with low resource consumption. The host machine runs only Windows Server VMs with the same edition as the host machine. According to the web search results2, per core licensing model costs $6,155 for 16 core licenses for Windows Server 2022 Datacenter edition and $1,069 for 16 core licenses for Windows Server 2022 Standard edition.These pricesare suggested retail prices and may vary depending on the reseller2 Per instance licensing model is a licensing model that requires a license for each instance of Windows that runs on a host machine or a VM. Per instance licensing model is available for Windows Server 2022 Essentials edition and some older versions of Windows Server. Per instance licensing model may offer a lower cost than per user or per core licensing model if the following conditions are met: The host machine runs only one instance of Windows Server with low resource consumption. The host machine does not need to run any other VMs or applications. The host machine does not need any advanced features or functions that are available in Datacenter or Standard editions. According to the web search results2, per instance licensing model costs $501 for one server license for Windows Server 2022 Essentials edition.This price is suggested retail price and may vary depending on the reseller2 Per concurrent user licensing model is a licensing model that allows a certain number of users to access Windows VMs at the same time, regardlessof the number of devices or VMs. Per concurrent user licensing model is not available for any current version of Windows or Windows Server. Per concurrent user licensing model was available for some older versions of Windows Server Terminal Services or Remote Desktop Services, but it was discontinued due to complexity and compliance issues. Therefore, per concurrent user licensing model cannot be used for running Windows VMs on a host.

• Question 403:

  A systems administrator needs to back up changes made to a data store on a daily basis during a short time frame. The administrator wants to maximize RTO when restoring data. Which of the following backup methodologies would best fit this scenario?

  A. Off-site backups

  B. Full backups

  C. Differential backups

  D. Incremental backups

  Correct Answer: D

  An incremental backup is a backup method that only backs up the files that have changed since the last backup, whether it was a full or an incremental backup. An incremental backup can save disk space and time, as it only copies the new or modified data. An incremental backup can also improve the RTO (Recovery Time Objective), which is the maximum acceptable time to restore data after a disaster. This is because an incremental backup can restore data faster than a full or a differential backup, as it only needs to apply the latest changes to the previous backup1.

• Question 404:

  Due to a disaster incident on a primary site, corporate users are redirected to cloud services where they will be required to be authenticated just once in order to use all cloud services.

  Which of the following types of authentications is described in this scenario?

  A. MFA

  B. NTLM

  C. Kerberos

  D. SSO

  Correct Answer: D

• Question 405:

  A server administrator deployed a new product that uses a non-standard port for web access on port 8443. However, users are unable to access the new application. The server administrator checks firewall rules and determines 8443 is allowed. Which of the following is most likely the cause of the issue?

  A. Intrusion detection is blocking the port.

  B. The new application's DNS entry is incorrect.

  C. The application should be changed to use port 443.

  D. The core switch has a network issue.

  Correct Answer: B

  A DNS entry is a record that maps a domain name to an IP address. If the DNS entry for the new application is incorrect, users will not be able to resolve the domain name to the correct IP address and port number. This will prevent them from accessing the application, even if the firewall rules allow port 8443. To fix this issue, the server administrator should verify and update the DNS entry for the new application. References: CompTIA Server+ Study Guide, Chapter 6: Networking, page 230.

• Question 406:

  Which of the following open ports should be closed to secure the server properly? (Choose two.)

  A. 21

  B. 22

  C. 23

  D. 53

  E. 443

  F. 636

  Correct Answer: AC

  The administrator should close ports 21 and 23 to secure the server properly. Port 21 is used for FTP (File Transfer Protocol), which is an unsecure protocol that allows file transfer between a client and a server over a network connection.

  FTP does not encrypt the data or the credentials that are transmitted, making them vulnerable to interception or modification by attackers. Port 23 is used for Telnet, which is an unsecure protocol that allows remote login and command

  execution over a network connection using a CLI. Telnet does not encrypt the data or the credentials that are transmitted, making them vulnerable to interception or modification by attackers.

  Reference:

  https://www.csoonline.com/article/3191531/securing-risky-network-ports.html

• Question 407:

  Which of the following attacks is the most difficult to mitigate with technology?

  A. Ransomware

  B. Backdoor

  C. SQL injection

  D. Phishing

  Correct Answer: D

  Phishing is a type of attack that is the most difficult to mitigate with technology. Phishing is a technique of deceiving users into revealing their personal or confidential information, such as passwords, credit card numbers, or bank accounts, by

  sending them fraudulent emails or messages that appear to be from legitimate sources. Phishing relies on human factors, such as curiosity, greed, or fear, to trick users into clicking on malicious links or attachments, or entering their

  credentials on fake websites. Technology solutions, such as antivirus software, firewalls, or spam filters, can help detect and block some phishing attempts, but they cannot prevent users from falling victim to social engineering tactics.

  References: [CompTIA Server+ Certification Exam Objectives], Domain 5.0:

  Security, Objective 5.3: Given a scenario, explain methods and techniques to secure data.

• Question 408:

  Which of the following types of asset management documentation is commonly used as a reference when processing the replacement of a faulty server component?

  A. Warranty

  B. Purchase order

  C. License

  D. Baseline document

  Correct Answer: A

  A warranty is a type of asset management documentation that is commonly used as a reference when processing the replacement of a faulty server component. A warranty is a guarantee from the manufacturer or vendor that covers the

  repair or replacement of defective parts within a specified period of time. A purchase order, a license, or a baseline document are not directly related to the replacement of a faulty server component. References: [CompTIA Server+

  Certification Exam Objectives], Domain 1.0:

  Server Architecture, Objective 1.4: Explain asset management and documentation processes.

• Question 409:

  A technicianretailed a new4TBharddrive inaWindows server. Which of the following should the technician perform FIRST to provision the newdrive?

  A. Configure the drive as a base disk.

  B. Configure the drive as a dynamic disk.

  C. Partition the drive using MBR.

  D. Partition the drive using OPT.

  Correct Answer: D

  Explanation: GPT (GUID Partition Table) is a partitioning scheme that allows creating partitions on large hard drives (more than 2 TB). It supports up to 128 partitions per drive and uses 64-bit addresses to locate them. MBR (Master Boot Record) is an older partitioning scheme that has limitations on the size and number of partitions (up to 4 primary partitions or 3 primary and 1 extended partition per drive). To provision a new 4 TB drive, the technician should partition it using GPT. Verified References: [GPT], [MBR]

• Question 410:

  A server administrator is currently working on an incident. Which of the following steps should the administrator perform before resolving the issue?

  A. Inform the impacted users.

  B. Make the changes to the system.

  C. Determine the probable causes.

  D. Identify changes to the server.

  Correct Answer: C

  The step that the server administrator should perform before resolving the issue is to determine the probable causes. This step is part of the troubleshooting process that follows a logical and systematic approach to identify and solve

  problems with servers and applications. The troubleshooting process consists of several steps, such as:

  Identify the problem: Gather information from various sources, such as users, logs, or alerts, to understand the symptoms and scope of the problem. Establish a theory of probable cause: Analyze the information and formulate one or more

  possible causes of the problem based on evidence or experience. Test the theory to determine cause: Perform tests or experiments to verify or eliminate each possible cause until the root cause is found. Establish a plan of action to resolve

  the problem and implement the solution:

  Design and execute a plan to fix the problem using appropriate tools and techniques.

  Verify full system functionality and implement preventive measures: Confirm that the problem is resolved and that no other issues arise as a result of the solution. Implement preventive measures to avoid recurrence of the problem or improve

  performance.

  Document findings, actions, and outcomes: Record the details of the problem, its cause, its solution, and its outcome for future reference or knowledge sharing. References: [CompTIA Server+ Certification Exam Objectives], Domain 6.0:

  Troubleshooting, Objective 6.1: Given a scenario involving server hardware issues (e.g., power supply failure), troubleshoot using appropriate tools.