CompTIA CompTIA Certifications SK0-005 Questions & Answers

• Question 411:

  An organization purchased six new 4TB drives for a server. An administrator is tasked with creating an efficient RAID given the minimum disk space requirement of 19TBs. Which of the following should the administrator choose to get the most efficient use of space?

  A. RAID 1

  B. RAID 5

  C. RAID 6

  D. RAID 10

  Correct Answer: B

  RAID 5 is a RAID level that uses disk striping with parity. It requires a minimum of three disks and can handle one disk failure. RAID 5 distributes the parity information across all the disks in the array, which improves the read performance and reduces the write penalty. The capacity of a RAID 5 array is (N-1) times the size of the smallest disk, where N is the number of disks in the array. Therefore, for six 4TB disks, the capacity of a RAID 5 array would be (6-1) x 4TB = 20TB, which meets the minimum disk space requirement of 19TB. RAID 5 also has the leastamount of disk space lost to RAID overhead among the options, as it only uses onedisk's worth of space for parity

• Question 412:

  An administrator is rebooting servers manually after a group of updates were deployed through SCCM. The administrator notices several of the servers did not receive the deployed update. Which of the following should the administrator review first?

  A. Confirm the server has the current OS updates and security patches installed.

  B. Confirm the server OS has a valid Active Directory account.

  C. Confirm the server does not have the firewall running.

  D. Confirm the server is in the collection scheduled to receive the update.

  Correct Answer: D

  The first thing the administrator should check is whether the server is in the collection that was scheduled to receive the update through SCCM. A collection is a group of resources, such as computers or users, that can be managed as a single entity by SCCM. If the server is not in the collection, it will not receive the update. The other options are less likely to be the cause of the problem, as they would affect other aspects of the server's functionality besides receiving updates. References: CompTIA Server+ Certification Exam Objectives, Domain 5.0: Security, Objective 5.4: Given a scenario, apply patches/updates and validate their installation.

• Question 413:

  A systems administrator needs to create a data volume out of four disks with the MOST redundancy. Which of the following is the BEST solution?

  A. RAID 0

  B. RAID 1

  C. RAID 5

  D. RAID 6

  Correct Answer: D

  RAID 6 is a type of RAID level that uses two parity blocks to provide fault tolerance and redundancy for data storage. RAID 6 can withstand the failure of up to two disks in the array without losing any data. RAID 6 requires a minimum of four disks to operate, and it distributes the data and parity blocks across all the disks in the array. RAID 6 has a high write penalty, which means that it takes more time and resources to write data to the disks than to read data from them. However, RAID 6 offers a highlevel of data protection and reliability, which makes it suitable for applications that require high availability and durability1.

  RAID 1 provides redundancy and fault tolerance by mirroring the data from one disk to another disk. RAID 1 offers high read performance and data security, but it has low capacity and write performance. RAID 1 requires a minimum of two disks to operate, and it can only tolerate the failure of one disk in the array. If more than one disk fails, all the data in the array is lost2. RAID 5 provides redundancy and fault tolerance by using one parity block to store information that can be used to reconstruct the data in case of a disk failure. RAID 5 requires a minimum of three disks to operate, and it distributesthe data and parity blocks across all the disks in the array. RAID 5 offers a balance between performance, capacity, and data protection, but it can only tolerate the failure of one disk in the array. If more than one disk fails, all the data in the array is lost2. Therefore, among these options, RAID 6 is the best solution for creating a data volume out of four disks with the most redundancy.

• Question 414:

  An administrator restores several database files without error while participating in a mock disaster recovery exercise. Later, the administrator reports that the restored databases are corrupt and cannot be used. Which of the following would best describe what caused this issue?

  A. The databases were not backed up to be application consistent.

  B. The databases were asynchronously replicated

  C. The databases were mirrored

  D. The database files were locked during the restoration process.

  Correct Answer: A

  Explanation: Application consistent backup is a method of backing up data that ensures the integrity and consistency of the application state. It involves notifying the application to flush its data from memory to disk and quiescing any write

  operations before taking a snapshot of the data. If the databases were not backed up to be application consistent, they might contain incomplete or corrupted data that cannot be restored properly.

  References:

  CompTIA Server+ Certification Exam Objectives1, page 12 What is Application Consistent Backup and How to Achieve It2 Application-Consistent Backups3

• Question 415:

  A newly hired systems administrator is concerned about fileshare access at the company. The administrator turns on DLP for the fileshare and lets it propagate for a week. Which of the following can the administrator perform now?

  A. Manage the fileshare from an RDP session.

  B. Audit the permissions of the fileshare.

  C. Audit the access to the physical fileshare.

  D. Manage the permissions from the fileshare.

  Correct Answer: B

  DLP, or Data Loss Prevention, is a type of security measure that aims to prevent unauthorized access, use, or transfer of sensitive data. DLP can be applied to various types of data, such as email, cloud storage, network traffic, or fileshares1. DLP for fileshares can help monitor and control who can access, modify, or share files on a network share2. By turning on DLP for the fileshare and letting it propagate for a week, the administrator can audit the permissions of the fileshare and see if there are any violations or anomalies in the access patterns. This can help the administrator identify and remediate any potential risks or compliance issues related to the fileshare2. The other options are incorrect because they are not directly related to DLP for fileshares. Managing the fileshare from an RDP session or from the fileshare itself are administrative tasksthat do not require DLP. Auditing the access to the physical fileshare is a physical security measure that is not affected by DLP.

• Question 416:

  An organization stores backup tapes of its servers at cold sites. The organization wants to ensure the tapes are properly maintained and usable during a DR scenario. Which of the following actions should the organization perform?

  A. Have the facility inspect and inventory the tapes on a regular basis.

  B. Have duplicate equipment available at the cold site.

  C. Retrieve the tapes from the cold site and test them.

  D. Use the test equipment at the cold site to read the tapes.

  Correct Answer: C

  Explanation: The organization should retrieve the tapes from the cold site and test them to ensure they are properly maintained and usable during a DR scenario. A cold site is a location that has space and power for backup equipment, but no actual equipment installed or configured. The organization stores backup tapes of its servers at cold sites as a precaution in case of a disaster that affects its primary site. However, backup tapes can degrade over time due to environmental factors such as temperature, humidity, dust, or magnetic fields. Therefore, the organization should periodically retrieve the tapes from the cold site and test them on compatible equipment to verify their integrity and readability. References: CompTIA Server+ SK0-005 Certification Study Guide, Chapter 6, Lesson 6.4, Objective 6.4

• Question 417:

  An administrator is troubleshooting connectivity to a remote server. The goal is to remotely connect to the server to make configuration changes. To further troubleshoot, a port scan revealed the ports on the server as follows:

  Port 22: Closed

  Port 23: Open

  Port 990: Closed

  Which of the following next steps should the administrator take? Reboot the workstation and then the server.

  A. Open port 990 and close port 23.

  B. Open port 22 and close port 23.

  C. Open all of the ports listed.

  D. Close all of the ports listed.

  Correct Answer: B

  Port 22 is used for SSH (Secure Shell), which is a secure and encrypted protocol for remote access to a server. Port 23 is used for Telnet, which is an insecure and unencrypted protocol for remote access. Port 990 is used for FTPS (File Transfer Protocol Secure), which is a secure and encrypted protocol for file transfer. The administrator should open port 22 and close port 23 to enable SSH and disable Telnet, as SSH is more secure and reliable than Telnet. The administrator does not need to open port 990, as FTPS is not required for making configuration changes123. References = 1: Remote Desktop - Allow access to your PC from outside your network(https://learn.microsoft.com/en-us/windows-server/remote/remote-desktop- services/clients/remote-desktop-allow-outside-access) 2: Test remote network port connection in Windows 10 - Winaero(https://winaero.com/test-remote-network-port- connection-in-windows-10/) 3: Windows Command to check if a remote server port is opened?(https://superuser.com/questions/1035018/windowscommand-to-check-if-a- remote-server-port-is-opened)

• Question 418:

  Which of the following is the most effective way to mitigate risks associated with privacy- related data leaks when sharing with a third party?

  A. Third-party acceptable use policy

  B. Customer data encryption and masking

  C. Non-disclosure and indemnity agreements

  D. Service- and operational-level agreements

  Correct Answer: B

  The most effective way to mitigate risks associated with privacy-related data leaks when sharing with a third party is customer data encryption and masking. Encryption is a process of transforming data into an unreadable format that can only be decrypted with a key or password. Masking is a process of hiding or replacing sensitive data with fake or meaningless data. By encrypting and masking customer data, the organization can protect the confidentiality and integrity of the data and prevent unauthorized access or disclosure by the third party. References: CompTIA Server+ SK0-005 Certification Study Guide, Chapter 3, Lesson 3.3, Objective 3.3

• Question 419:

  A technician is sizing a new server and, for service reasons, needs as many hot-swappable components as possible. Which of the following server components can most commonly be replaced without downtime? (Select three).

  A. Drives

  B. Fans

  C. CMOSIC

  D. Processor

  E. Power supplies

  F. Motherboard

  G. Memory

  H. BIOS

  Correct Answer: ABE

  Drives, fans, and power supplies are server components that can most commonly be replaced without downtime if they are hot-swappable. Hot-swappable components can be removed and inserted while the server is running, without affecting its operation or performance. Drives store data and applications, fans cool down the server components, and power supplies provide electricity to the server. Replacing these components can prevent data loss, overheating, or power failure. References: CompTIA Server+ Certification Exam Objectives, Domain 2.0: Hardware, Objective 2.2: Given a scenario, install, configure and maintain server components.

• Question 420:

  Which of the following backup types should be chosen for database servers?

  A. Differential

  B. Incremental

  C. Synthetic full

  D. Open file

  Correct Answer: C

  Explanation: A synthetic full backup is a type of backup that combines a full backup with one or more incremental backups to create a new full backup without accessing the source data. This type of backup is suitable for database servers, as it reduces the backup window, minimizes the impact on the server performance, and provides faster recovery time. Verified References: [Synthetic Full Backup]