After reviewing the following vulnerability scanning report:
A security analyst performs the following test:
Which of the following would the security analyst conclude for this reported vulnerability?
A. It is a false positive.
B. A rescan is required.
C. It is considered noise.
D. Compensating controls exist.
Correct Answer: A
A false positive is a result that indicates a vulnerability or a problem when there is none. In this case, the vulnerability scanning report shows that the telnet service on port 23 is open and uses an insecure network protocol. However, the security analyst performs a test using nmap and a script that checks for telnet encryption support. The result shows that the telnet server supports encryption, which means that the data transmitted between the client and the server can be protected from eavesdropping. Therefore, the reported vulnerability is a false positive and does not reflect the actual security posture of the server. The security analyst should verify the encryption settings of the telnet server and client and ensure that they are configured properly3.
References: 3: Telnet Protocol - Can You Encrypt Telnet?
Question 292:
After an audit, an administrator discovers all users have access to confidential data on a file server. Which of the following should the administrator use to restrict access to the data quickly?
A. Group Policy
B. Content filtering
C. Data loss prevention
D. Access control lists
Correct Answer: D
Access control lists (ACLs) are rules that specify which users or groups can access which resources on a file server. They can help restrict access to confidential data by granting or denying permissions based on the identity or role of the user. In this case, the administrator can use ACLs to quickly modify the access rights of the users and prevent them from accessing the data they are not authorized to see.
A security analyst scans a company's public network and discovers a host is running a remote desktop that can be used to access the production network. Which of the following changes should the security analyst recommend?
A. Changing the remote desktop port to a non-standard number
B. Setting up a VPN and placing the jump server inside the firewall
C. Using a proxy for web connections from the remote desktop server
D. Connecting the remote server to the domain and increasing the password length
Correct Answer: B
A VPN is a virtual private network that creates a secure tunnel between two or more devices over a public network. A VPN can encrypt and authenticate the data, as well as hide the IP addresses and locations of the devices. A jump server is a server that acts as an intermediary between a user and a target server, such as a production server. A jump server can provide an additional layer of security and access control, as well as logging and auditing capabilities. A firewall is a device or software that filters and blocks unwanted network traffic based on predefined rules. A firewall can protect the internal network from external threats and limit the exposure of sensitive services and ports. A security analyst should recommend setting up a VPN and placing the jump server inside the firewall to improve the security of the remote desktop access to the production network. This way, the remote desktop service will not be exposed to the public network, and only authorized users with VPN credentials can access the jump server and then the production server.
Which of the following vulnerabilities is associated with installing software outside of a manufacturer's approved software repository?
A. Jailbreaking
B. Memory injection
C. Resource reuse
D. Side loading
Correct Answer: D
Side loading is the process of installing software outside of a manufacturer's approved software repository. This can expose the device to potential vulnerabilities, such as malware, spyware, or unauthorized access. Side loading can also bypass security controls and policies that are enforced by the manufacturer or the organization. Side loading is often done by users who want to access applications or features that are not available or allowed on their devices.
References: Sideloading - CompTIA Security + Video Training | Interface Technical Training, Security+ (Plus) Certification | CompTIA IT Certifications, Load Balancers -CompTIA Security+ SY0-501 -2.1, CompTIA Security+ SY0-601 Certification Study Guide.
Question 295:
A client demands at least 99.99% uptime from a service provider's hosted security services. Which of the following documents includes the information the service provider should return to the client?
A. MOA
B. SOW
C. MOU
D. SLA
Correct Answer: D
A service level agreement (SLA) is a document that defines the level of service expected by a customer from a service provider, indicating the metrics by which that service is measured, and the remedies or penalties, if any, should the agreed-upon levels not be achieved. An SLA can specify the minimum uptime or availability of a service, such as 99.99%, and the consequences for failing to meet that standard. A memorandum of agreement (MOA), a statement of work (SOW), and a memorandum of understanding (MOU) are other types of documents that can be used to establish a relationship between parties, but they do not typically include the details of service levels and performance metrics that an SLA does.
A security analyst and the management team are reviewing the organizational performance of a recent phishing campaign. The user click-through rate exceeded the acceptable risk threshold, and the management team wants to reduce the impact when a user clicks on a link in a phishing message. Which of the following should the analyst do?
A. Place posters around the office to raise awareness of common phishing activities.
B. Implement email security filters to prevent phishing emails from being delivered
C. Update the EDR policies to block automatic execution of downloaded programs.
D. Create additional training for users to recognize the signs of phishing attempts.
Correct Answer: C
An endpoint detection and response (EDR) system is a security tool that monitors and analyzes the activities and behaviors of endpoints, such as computers, laptops, mobile devices, and servers. An EDR system can detect, prevent, and respond to various types of threats, such as malware, ransomware, phishing, and advanced persistent threats (APTs). One of the features of an EDR system is to block the automatic execution of downloaded programs, which can prevent malicious code from running on the endpoint when a user clicks on a link in a phishing message. This can reduce the impact of a phishing attack and protect the endpoint from compromise. Updating the EDR policies to block automatic execution of downloaded programs is a technical control that can mitigate the risk of phishing, regardless of the user's awareness or behavior. Therefore, this is the best answer among the given options. The other options are not as effective as updating the EDR policies, because they rely on administrative or physical controls that may not be sufficient to prevent or stop a phishing attack. Placing posters around the office to raise awareness of common phishing activities is a physical control that can increase the user's knowledge of phishing, but it may not change their behavior or prevent them from clicking on a link in a phishing message. Implementing email security filters to prevent phishing emails from being delivered is an administrative control that can reduce the exposure to phishing, but it may not be able to block all phishing emails, especially if they are crafted to bypass the filters. Creating additional training for users to recognize the signs of phishing attempts is an administrative control that can improve the user's skills of phishing detection, but it may not guarantee that they will always be vigilant or cautious when receiving an email. Therefore, these options are not the best answer for this question.
References: Endpoint Detection and Response -CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 -2.2, video at 5:30; CompTIA Security+ SY0- 701 Certification Study Guide, page 163.
Question 297:
An attacker posing as the Chief Executive Officer calls an employee and instructs the employee to buy gift cards. Which of the following techniques is the attacker using?
A. Smishing
B. Disinformation
C. Impersonating
D. Whaling
Correct Answer: D
Whaling is a type of phishing attack that targets high-profile individuals, such as executives, celebrities, or politicians. The attacker impersonates someone with authority or influence and tries to trick the victim into performing an action, such as transferring money, revealing sensitive information, or clicking on a malicious link. Whaling is also called CEO fraud or business email compromise2.
Which of the following is used to validate a certificate when it is presented to a user?
A. OCSP
B. CSR
C. CA
D. CRC
Correct Answer: A
OCSP stands for Online Certificate Status Protocol. It is a protocol that allows applications to check the revocation status of a certificate in real-time. It works by sending a query to an OCSP responder, which is a server that maintains a database of revoked certificates. The OCSP responder returns a response that indicates whether the certificate is valid, revoked, or unknown. OCSP is faster and more efficient than downloading and parsing Certificate Revocation Lists (CRLs), which are large files that contain the serial numbers of all revoked certificates issued by a Certificate Authority (CA).
After a security incident, a systems administrator asks the company to buy a NAC platform. Which of the following attack surfaces is the systems administrator trying to protect?
A. Bluetooth
B. Wired
C. NFC
D. SCADA
Correct Answer: B
A NAC (network access control) platform is a technology that enforces security policies on devices that attempt to access a network. A NAC platform can verify the identity, role, and compliance of the devices, and grant or deny access based on predefined rules. A NAC platform can protect both wired and wireless networks, but in this scenario, the systems administrator is trying to protect the wired attack surface, which is the set of vulnerabilities that can be exploited through a physical connection to the network12.
A healthcare organization wants to provide a web application that allows individuals to digitally report health emergencies.
Which of the following is the most important consideration during development?
A. Scalability
B. Availability
C. Cost
D. Ease of deployment
Correct Answer: B
Availability is the ability of a system or service to be accessible and usable when needed. For a web application that allows individuals to digitally report health emergencies, availability is the most important consideration during development, because any downtime or delay could have serious consequences for the health and safety of the users. The web application should be designed to handle high traffic, prevent denial-of- service attacks, and have backup and recovery plans in case of failures2.
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