CompTIA CompTIA Certifications CLO-002 Questions & Answers

• Question 101:

  An analyst is reviewing a report on a company's cloud resources expenditures. The analyst has noted that a data warehouse team uses a significant amount of high-speed storage for live databases and backups. Which of the following should the analyst recommend for improved cost and efficiency?

  A. Configure the live database for redundant clustering.

  B. Move the backups to slower storage.

  C. Configure geo-redundancy for backups.

  D. Move the backups to another availability zone.

  Correct Answer: B

  Explanation: High-speed storage, such as solid-state drives (SSDs), is more expensive and faster than slower storage, such as hard disk drives (HDDs). High-speed storage is suitable for live databases that require low latency and high performance, but not for backups that are rarely accessed and do not need fast retrieval. Therefore, the analyst should recommend moving the backups to slower storage, which can reduce the cost and improve the efficiency of the cloud resources expenditures. Moving the backups to slower storage can also free up more space for the live database on the high-speed storage1. Configuring the live database for redundant clustering, configuring geo-redundancy for backups, or moving the backups to another availability zone are not recommended for improved cost and efficiency, as they would increase the complexity and expense of the cloud resources. Redundant clustering and geo-redundancy are techniques for enhancing the availability and reliability of the data, but they also require more storage and network resources2. Moving the backups to another availability zone may improve the fault tolerance and latency of the backups, but it may also incur additional fees for data transfer and storage3. References: Choose between SSD and HDD storage - Google Cloud; Cloud Computing vs. Cloud Storage | Pure Storage; Cloud Storage vs. Local Storage | Enterprise Storage Forum.

• Question 102:

  Which of the following BEST describes the open-source licensing model for application software?

  A. Software is free to use, but the source code is not available to modify.

  B. Modifications to existing software are not allowed.

  C. Code modifications must be submitted for approval.

  D. Source code is readily available to view and use.

  Correct Answer: D

  Explanation: The open-source licensing model for application software is a type of software license that allows anyone to access, modify, and distribute the source code of the software, subject to certain terms and conditions. The source code is the human- readable version of the software that contains the instructions and logic for how the software works. By making the source code available, open-source software licenses enable collaboration, innovation, and transparency among software developers and users. There are different types of open-source software licenses, such as permissive and copyleft licenses, that vary in the degree of freedom and restriction they impose on the use and modification of the software. However, the common characteristic of all open-source software licenses is that they grant the right to view and use the source code of the software. Therefore, option D is the best description of the open-source licensing model for application software. Option A is incorrect because it describes the opposite of the open- source licensing model. Software that is free to use, but the source code is not available to modify, is called closed-source or proprietary software. Option B is incorrect because it contradicts the open-source licensing model. Modifications to existing software are allowed under open-source software licenses, as long as they comply with the terms and conditions of the license. Option C is incorrect because it does not reflect the open-source licensing model. Code modifications do not need to be submitted for approval under open-source software licenses, although they may need to be shared with the original author or the community, depending on the license. References: CompTIA Cloud Essentials+ CLO-002 Study Guide, Chapter 2: Cloud Concepts, Section 2.4: Cloud Service Models, Page 531 and Understanding Open-Source Software Licenses | DigitalOcean

• Question 103:

  A vendor stipulates it will provide incident response within two hours of a severity level A incident. Which of the following does this describe?

  A. Maintenance agreement

  B. Managed service agreement

  C. Operating level agreement

  D. Service level agreement

  Correct Answer: D

  Explanation: A service level agreement (SLA) is a contract between a service provider and a customer that defines the expected level of service, performance, availability, and quality of the service, as well as the responsibilities, obligations, and penalties of both parties. An SLA typically includes metrics and indicators to measure and monitor the service, such as response time, uptime, throughput, etc. An SLA also specifies the severity levels of incidents and the corresponding resolution times, such as two hours for a severity level A incident, which is the most critical and urgent. An SLA is different from a maintenance agreement, which is a contract that covers the repair and upkeep of equipment or software; a managed service agreement, which is a contract that covers the outsourcing of certain IT functions or processes to a third-party provider; or an operating level agreement, which is an internal agreement between different departments or units within an organization that support the delivery of a service. References: CompTIA Cloud Essentials+ Certification Exam Objectives1, CompTIA Cloud Essentials+ Study Guide, Chapter 2: Business Principles of Cloud Environments2, Service Level Agreements for Managed Services3

• Question 104:

  When designing a new cloud-enabled application, an organization that is considering RTO and RPO is MOST likely concerned about:

  A. redundancy.

  B. load balancing.

  C. disaster recovery.

  D. high availability.

  Correct Answer: C

  Explanation: Disaster recovery is the process of restoring the normal operations of an organization after a disruptive event, such as a natural disaster, a cyberattack, or a human error. Disaster recovery involves the planning, preparation, and implementation of strategies and procedures to minimize the impact and duration of the disruption, and to ensure the continuity and availability of the critical functions and data of the organization1 RTO and RPO are two key metrics that are used to measure and evaluate the disaster recovery capabilities and objectives of an organization. RTO stands for Recovery Time Objective, which is the maximum acceptable amount of time that an application or a service can be offline or unavailable after a disruption. RPO stands for Recovery Point Objective, which is the maximum acceptable amount of data that can be lost or unrecoverable after a disruption2 When designing a new cloud-enabled application, an organization that is considering RTO and RPO is most likely concerned about disaster recovery, as these metrics can help the organization to determine the optimal level of backup, redundancy, and recovery for the application, as well as the potential costs and risks of downtime or data loss. RTO and RPO can also help the organization to choose the appropriate cloud service model, provider, and deployment option that can meet the disaster recovery requirements and expectations of the organization and its customers3 References: CompTIA Cloud Essentials+ Certification Exam Objectives4, CompTIA Cloud Essentials+ Study Guide, Chapter 7: Cloud Security5, Cloud Essentials+ Certification Training

• Question 105:

  Which of the following BEST explains the concept of RTOs for restoring servers to operational use?

  A. To reduce the amount of data loss that can occur in the event of a server failure

  B. To ensure the restored server is available and operational within a given window of time

  C. To ensure the data on the restored server is current within a given window of time

  D. To reduce the amount of time a particular server is unavailable and offline

  Correct Answer: D

  Explanation: RTO stands for Recovery Time Objective, which is a metric that measures the maximum acceptable amount of time that an application or a service can be offline or unavailable after a disruption, such as a server failure, a power outage, or a natural disaster. RTO is a key indicator of the disaster recovery capabilities and objectives of an organization, as it reflects the level of tolerance or impact of downtime on the business operations, reputation, and revenue. RTO is usually expressed in hours, minutes, or seconds, and it can vary depending on the criticality and priority of the application or the service. RTO can help an organization to determine the optimal level of backup, redundancy, and recovery for the application or the service, as well as the potential costs and risks of downtime. RTO can also help the organization to choose the appropriate cloud service model, provider, and deployment option that can meet the disaster recovery requirements and expectations of the organization and its customers12 Therefore, the best explanation of the concept of RTOs for restoring servers to operational use is to reduce the amount of time a particular server is unavailable and offline, as this implies the goal of minimizing the duration and frequency of downtime, and restoring the normal operations and functionality of the server as quickly as possible. References: CompTIA Cloud Essentials+ Certification Exam Objectives3, CompTIA Cloud Essentials+ Study Guide, Chapter 7: Cloud Security4, Cloud Essentials+ Certification Training

• Question 106:

  A manufacturing company is selecting applications for a cloud migration. The company's main concern relates to the ERP system, which needs to receive data from multiple industrial systems to generate the executive reports. Which of the following will provide the details needed for the company's decision regarding the cloud migration?

  A. Standard operating procedures

  B. Feasibility studies

  C. Statement of work

  D. Benchmarks

  Correct Answer: B

  Explanation: Feasibility studies are the best option to provide the details needed for the company's decision regarding the cloud migration. Feasibility studies are comprehensive assessments that evaluate the technical, financial, operational, and organizational aspects of moving an application or workload from one environment to another. Feasibility studies can help determine the suitability, viability, and benefits of migrating an application or workload to the cloud, as well as the challenges, risks, and costs involved. Feasibility studies can also help identify the best cloud solution and migration method for the application or workload, based on its requirements, dependencies, and characteristics. In the context of the manufacturing company, a feasibility study can help analyze the ERP system and its data sources, and provide information on how to migrate it to the cloud without compromising its functionality, performance, security, or compliance. A feasibility study can also help compare the cloud migration options with the current on-premises solution, and estimate the return on investment and the total cost of ownership of the cloud migration. Therefore, feasibility studies can provide the details needed for the company's decision regarding the cloud migration. Standard operating procedures, statement of work, and benchmarks are not the best options to provide the details needed for the company's decision regarding the cloud migration, as they have different purposes and scopes. Standard operating procedures are documents that describe the steps and tasks involved in performing a specific process or activity, such as installing, configuring, or troubleshooting an application or workload. Standard operating procedures can help ensure consistency, quality, and efficiency in the execution of a process or activity, but they do not provide information on the feasibility or suitability of migrating an application or workload to the cloud. Statement of work is a document that defines the scope, objectives, deliverables, and expectations of a project or contract, such as a cloud migration project or contract. Statement of work can help establish the roles, responsibilities, and expectations of the parties involved in a project or contract, but it does not provide information on the feasibility or viability of migrating an application or workload to the cloud. Benchmarks are tests or measurements that evaluate the performance, quality, or reliability of an application or workload, such as the speed, throughput, or availability of an application or workload. Benchmarks can help compare the performance, quality, or reliability of an application or workload across different environments, such as on-premises or cloud, but they do not provide information on the feasibility or benefits of migrating an application or workload to the cloud. References: CompTIA Cloud Essentials+ CLO-002 Study Guide, Chapter 7: Cloud Migration, Section 7.1: Cloud Migration Concepts, Page 2031 and Navigating Success: The Crucial Role of Feasibility Studies in SAP Cloud Migration | SAP Blogs

• Question 107:

  Which of the following is a security advantage of using CDNs?

  A. Advanced threat inspection

  B. VPN sessions to the consumers

  C. Resiliency against DDoS attacks

  D. Data encryption at rest

  Correct Answer: C

  Explanation: A content delivery network (CDN) is a network of servers that deliver web content to users based on their geographic location. A CDN can improve the performance, reliability, and security of a web application by caching content closer to the users and reducing the load on the origin server. One of the security advantages of using a CDN is that it can provide resiliency against distributed denial-of-service (DDoS) attacks, which are attempts to overwhelm a web server with a large number of requests from multiple sources. A CDN can mitigate DDoS attacks by: Distributing the traffic across multiple servers and locations, making it harder for attackers to target a single point of failure Filtering out malicious requests before they reach the origin server, using techniques such as rate limiting, IP blocking, and challenge-response mechanisms Absorbing the attack traffic with greater bandwidth and resources than the origin server, reducing the impact on the web application's availability and performance References: CompTIA Cloud Essentials+ CLO-002 Study Guide, Chapter 4: Security in the Cloud, page 152; Why use a CDN? | CDN benefits | Cloudflare; What Is DNS Security? How Does It Work? - Cisco Umbrella; What is DNS Security? - Cisco Umbrella; What Is DNS Security? DNS vs DNS Security vs DNSSEC | Fortinet

• Question 108:

  Which of the following risks is MOST likely a result of vendor lock-in?

  A. Premature obsolescence

  B. Data portability issues

  C. External breach

  D. Greater system vulnerability

  Correct Answer: B

  Explanation: Data portability is the ability to move data from one cloud service provider to another without losing functionality, quality, or security. Vendor lock-in is a situation where a customer becomes dependent on a particular cloud service provider and faces high switching costs, lack of interoperability, and contractual obligations. Vendor lock-in can result in data portability issues, as the customer may have difficulty transferring their data to a different cloud service provider if they are dissatisfied with the current one or want to take advantage of better offers. Data portability issues can affect the customer's flexibility, agility, and cost-efficiency in the cloud123. References: CompTIA Cloud Essentials+ Certification Study Guide, Second Edition (LO-002), Chapter 1: Cloud Principles and Design, pages 19-20.

• Question 109:

  A business analyst is drafting a proposal for eliminating redundant copies of data from a SAN disk drive. Which of the following terms should the analyst mention in the proposal?

  A. Deduplication

  B. Encryption

  C. Sanitization

  D. Compression

  Correct Answer: A

  Explanation: Deduplication is a technique that eliminates redundant copies of data from a storage device, such as a SAN disk drive. Deduplication can reduce the amount of storage space required and improve the performance and efficiency of the storage system. Deduplication works by identifying and removing duplicate blocks of data within or across files, and replacing them with pointers to a single copy of the data. Deduplication can be performed at the file level or the block level, depending on the granularity and the algorithm used. Deduplication is often used in backup and archive scenarios, where data is highly redundant and can be deduplicated across multiple backups. Deduplication can also be used in primary storage scenarios, such as SAN disk drives, especially for all-flash arrays that implement deduplication techniques. Deduplication is different from compression, which is another technique that reduces the size of data by removing redundant information within a data block. Deduplication and compression can work together to achieve higher storage savings. Deduplication is also different from encryption, which is a technique that protects the confidentiality and integrity of data by transforming it into an unreadable form using a secret key. Deduplication is not effective for encrypted data, as encryption makes the data appear random and unique. Deduplication is also different from sanitization, which is a technique that permanently erases data from a storage device, making it unrecoverable. Deduplication does not erase data, but rather consolidates it and removes duplicates. Therefore, the correct term for eliminating redundant copies of data from a SAN disk drive is deduplication. References: Using Deduplication and Compression, Understanding Data Deduplication, 7.6 Using Deduplication techniques in SAN infrastrucutre.

• Question 110:

  A developer is leveraging a public cloud service provider to provision servers using the templates created by the company's cloud engineer.

  Which of the following does this BEST describe?

  A. Subscription services

  B. Containerization

  C. User self-service

  D. Autonomous environments

  Correct Answer: C

  Explanation: User self-service is a cloud computing feature that allows users to provision, manage, and terminate cloud resources on demand, without the need for human intervention or approval. User self-service enables users to access cloud services through an online control panel, a web portal, or an API. User self-service can improve the agility, efficiency, and scalability of cloud computing, as users can quickly and easily obtain the resources they need, when they need them, and pay only for what they use. User self- service can also reduce the workload and costs of the cloud service provider, as they do not have to manually process requests or allocate resources. In this scenario, a developer is leveraging a public cloud service provider to provision servers using the templates created by the company's cloud engineer. This means that the developer can access the cloud provider's web portal or API, select the desired template, and launch the server instance without waiting for approval or assistance from the cloud provider or the cloud engineer. This is an example of user self-service, as the developer can self-manage the cloud resources according to their needs. References:

  1: What is On-Demand Self Service? - Definition from Techopedia

  2: What is Self-Service Provisioning in Cloud? | CloudBolt Software CompTIA Cloud Essentials+ Certification Study Guide, Second Edition (LO-002), Chapter 2: The Business Side of Cloud Computing, Section 2.1: Cloud Service Models3