CompTIA CompTIA Certifications CLO-002 Questions & Answers

• Question 121:

  A cloud administrator needs to enable users to access business applications remotely while ensuring these applications are only installed on company-controlled equipment. All users require the ability to modify personal working environments. Which of the following is the BEST solution?

  A. SSO

  B. VDI

  C. SSH

  D. VPN

  Correct Answer: B

  Explanation: The best solution for this scenario is Virtual Desktop Infrastructure (VDI). VDI is a cloud service model that provides users with virtual desktops that run on a centralized server. Users can access their virtual desktops remotely from any device, such as a laptop, tablet, or smartphone, using a thin client or a web browser. VDI enables users to access business applications without installing them on their own devices, which ensures that these applications are only installed on company-controlled equipment. VDI also allows users to modify their personal working environments, such as desktop settings, wallpapers, or preferences, which are saved on the server and persist across sessions. VDI can offer benefits such as improved security, reduced hardware costs, centralized management, and enhanced user experience. The other options are not the best solutions for this scenario. Single Sign-On (SSO) is a cloud service that enables users to log in to multiple applications or systems with one set of credentials, which simplifies authentication and improves security. However, SSO does not provide users with remote access to business applications or personal working environments. Secure Shell (SSH) is a network protocol that allows secure remote access to a server or a device using encryption and authentication. SSH can be used to execute commands, transfer files, or tunnel network traffic. However, SSH does not provide users with virtual desktops or business applications. Virtual Private Network (VPN) is a network technology that creates a secure connection between a remote device and a private network over a public network, such as the Internet. VPN can be used to access network resources, such as files, printers, or applications, that are not available otherwise. However, VPN does not provide users with virtual desktops or personal working environments. References: CompTIA Cloud Essentials+ Certification Study Guide, Second Edition (LO-002), Chapter 2: Cloud Concepts, Section 2.3: Cloud Service Models, p. 64-65

• Question 122:

  A small online retailer is looking for a solution to handle the high load on its servers during the holiday season. The retailer is not currently ready to move its IT operations completely to the cloud.

  Which of the following will BEST fit these requirements?

  A. Elasticity

  B. Scalability

  C. Bursting

  D. Self-service

  Correct Answer: C

  Cloud bursting is a configuration method that uses cloud computing resources whenever on-premises infrastructure reaches peak capacity. When organizations run out of computing resources in their internal data center, they burst the extra workload to external third-party cloud services. Cloud bursting is a convenient and cost-effective way to to support workloads with varying demand patterns and seasonal spikes in demand12. Elasticity and scalability are related concepts, but they are not specific solutions for the retailer's problem. Elasticity refers to the ability of a cloud service to automatically adjust the amount of resources allocated to a workload based on the current demand3. Scalability refers to the ability of a cloud service to handle increasing or decreasing workloads by adding or removing resources4. Self-service is a feature of cloud computing that allows users to provision, manage, and monitor their own cloud resources without the need for human intervention5. While these features are beneficial for cloud consumers, they do not address the retailer's need to handle the high load on its servers during the holiday season without moving its IT operations completely to the cloud.

  https://azure.microsoft.com/en-us/resources/cloud-computing-dictionary/what-is-cloud- bursting/ https://aws.amazon.com/what-is/cloud-bursting/

  https://www.geeksforgeeks.org/cloud-bursting-vs-cloud-scaling/

• Question 123:

  Monthly cloud service costs are BEST described as:

  A. operating expenditures.

  B. fixed expenditures.

  C. capital expenditures.

  D. personnel expenditures.

  Correct Answer: A

  Explanation: Monthly cloud service costs are best described as operating expenditures. Operating expenditures (OPEX) are the ongoing costs of running a business or a service, such as rent, utilities, salaries, maintenance, and subscriptions1. Cloud services are typically paid on a monthly or annual basis, depending on the usage and the service level agreement. Cloud services reduce the need for capital expenditures (CAPEX), which are the upfront costs of acquiring assets, such as hardware, software, or infrastructure1. Fixed expenditures are the costs that do not change regardless of the level of output or activity, such as rent or insurance2. Personnel expenditures are the costs of hiring, training, and retaining employees, such as salaries, benefits, or taxes3. References : CompTIA Cloud Essentials+ Certification | CompTIA IT Certifications, CompTIA Cloud Essentials CLO-002 Certification Study Guide, Fixed Costs Definition, Personnel Costs Definition

• Question 124:

  A new company directive requires all departments to ensure intellectual property is kept within a country's borders. Which of the following concepts BEST represents this requirement?

  A. Data portability

  B. Data security

  C. Data locality

  D. Data sovereignty

  Correct Answer: D

  Explanation: Data sovereignty is the concept that best represents the requirement for keeping intellectual property within a country's borders. Data sovereignty refers to the idea that data is subject to the laws and governance of the country in which it is stored or processed. Data sovereignty can have implications for data privacy, security, compliance, and access, as different countries may have different regulations, standards, or policies regarding data protection, ownership, or transfer. Data sovereignty can also affect the choice of cloud providers, as some cloud providers may store or process data in multiple locations across the world, which may not comply with the data sovereignty requirements of the customer or the country. Therefore, customers who need to ensure data sovereignty should carefully review the terms and conditions of the cloud provider, and choose the one that offers the appropriate data location, encryption, or isolation options12 References: CompTIA Cloud Essentials+ Certification Exam Objectives3, CompTIA Cloud Essentials+ Study Guide, Chapter 4: Cloud Storage2, Intellectual Property Localization1

• Question 125:

  Which of the following BEST specifies how software components interoperate in a cloud environment?

  A. Federation

  B. Regression

  C. Orchestration

  D. API integration

  Correct Answer: B

  Explanation: A disaster recovery plan (DRP) is a document that defines the procedures and resources needed to restore normal operations after a major disruption. A DRP typically includes the following elements: The scope and objectives of the plan The roles and responsibilities of the DR team The inventory and location of critical assets and resources The recovery strategies and procedures for different scenarios The testing and maintenance schedule for the plan The communication plan for internal and external stakeholders One of the key components of a DRP is the recovery sequence, which is the optimal, sequential order in which cloud resources should be recovered in the event of a major failure. The recovery sequence is based on the priority and dependency of the resources, as well as the recovery time objective (RTO) and recovery point objective (RPO) of the business. The recovery sequence helps to minimize the downtime and data loss, and ensure the continuity of the business operations. A recovery point objective (RPO) is the maximum acceptable amount of data loss measured in time. It indicates how often the data should be backed up and how much data can be restored after a disaster. A recovery time objective (RTO) is the maximum acceptable amount of time that a system or application can be offline after a disaster. It indicates how quickly the system or application should be restored and how much downtime can be tolerated by the business. An incident response plan (IRP) is a document that defines the procedures and actions to be taken in response to a security breach or cyberattack. An IRP typically includes the following elements: The scope and objectives of the plan The roles and responsibilities of the incident response team The incident identification and classification criteria The incident containment, eradication, and recovery steps The incident analysis and reporting methods The incident prevention and improvement measures A network topology diagram is a visual representation of the physical and logical layout of a network. It shows the devices, connections, and configurations of the network. A network topology diagram can help to identify the potential points of failure, the impact of a failure, and the recovery options for a network. However, it does not define the optimal, sequential order in which cloud resources should be recovered in the event of a major failure. References: The following sources were used to create this answer: Disaster recovery planning guide | Cloud Architecture Center - Google Cloud What is Disaster Recovery and Why Is It Important? - Google Cloud Key considerations when building a disaster recovery plan for private cloud - Continuity Central 12 Essential Points Of the Disaster Recovery Plan Checklist - NAKIVO Building a Cloud Disaster Recovery Plan: Tips and Approaches - MSP360

• Question 126:

  In a DevOps environment there is a requirement to start building application solutions in an efficient manner without any dependent components. Which of the following should a DevOps engineer do to meet these requirements?

  A. Build the applications in QA, and then enable resource tagging.

  B. Build the applications in QA, and then clone and deploy them in production.

  C. Use templates for building the applications.

  D. Use templates and enable auto-scaling.

  Correct Answer: C

  Explanation: Templates are reusable files that contain predefined content, logic, and parameters for creating or deploying cloud resources and services1. Templates can help DevOps engineers to start building application solutions in an efficient manner without any dependent components, as they can automate and standardize the provisioning and configuration of the cloud environment2. Templates can also enable faster and more consistent delivery of applications, as they can reduce errors, improve quality, and facilitate collaboration and integration3. Templates can be written in various languages and formats, such as JSON, YAML, XML, or PowerShell, depending on the cloud provider and platform. For example, Azure Resource Manager templates, AWS CloudFormation templates, and Google Cloud Deployment Manager templates are some of the common types of templates used for building cloud applications . Building the applications in QA, and then enabling resource tagging, is not a valid option, as resource tagging is a feature that allows users to assign metadata to cloud resources, such as name, purpose, owner, or cost center, to facilitate management, monitoring, and billing. Resource tagging does not help to build application solutions without any dependent components, nor does it automate or standardize the cloud environment. Building the applications in QA, and then cloning and deploying them in production, is not a valid option, as cloning is a process of creating an exact copy of a cloud resource or service, such as a virtual machine, a database, or a storage account. Cloning does not help to build application solutions without any dependent components, nor does it automate or standardize the cloud environment. Cloning may also introduce security and compliance risks, as the cloned resources may contain sensitive or confidential data that need to be protected or removed. Using templates and enabling auto-scaling, is not a valid option, as auto-scaling is a feature that allows cloud resources and services to automatically adjust their capacity and performance based on the changes in demand or workload. Auto-scaling does not help to build application solutions without any dependent components, nor does it automate or standardize the cloud environment. Auto-scaling is mainly used to optimize the resource utilization and cost efficiency of the cloud applications, as well as to improve their availability and reliability. References:

  1: CompTIA Cloud Essentials+ Certification Study Guide, Second Edition (LO-002), Chapter 6, page 161.

  2: CompTIA Cloud Essentials+ Certification Study Guide, Second Edition (LO-002), Chapter 6, page 162.

  3: CompTIA Cloud Essentials+ Certification Study Guide, Second Edition (LO-002), Chapter 6, page 163.

  [4]: CompTIA Cloud Essentials+ Certification Study Guide, Second Edition (LO-002), Chapter 6, page 164.

  [5]: Azure Resource Manager templates

  [6]: AWS CloudFormation templates

  [7]: Google Cloud Deployment Manager templates

  [8]: CompTIA Cloud Essentials+ Certification Study Guide, Second Edition (LO-002), Chapter 6, page 167.

  [9]: CompTIA Cloud Essentials+ Certification Study Guide, Second Edition (LO-002), Chapter 6, page 168.

  [10]: CompTIA Cloud Essentials+ Certification Study Guide, Second Edition (LO-002), Chapter 6, page 169.

  [11]: CompTIA Cloud Essentials+ Certification Study Guide, Second Edition (LO-002), Chapter 6, page 170.

  [12]: CompTIA Cloud Essentials+ Certification Study Guide, Second Edition (LO-002), Chapter 6, page 171

• Question 127:

  Which of the following service models BEST describes a cloud-hosted application in which the end user only creates user access and configures options?

  A. MaaS

  B. SaaS

  C. PaaS

  D. laaS

  Correct Answer: B

  Explanation: According to the CompTIA Cloud Essentials objectives and documents, SaaS, or Software as a Service, is the best option for describing a cloud-hosted application in which the end user only creates user access and configures options. SaaS is a cloud service model that delivers and manages software applications over the internet, without requiring the end user to install, update, or maintain any software or hardware on their own devices. SaaS applications are typically accessed through a web browser or a mobile app, and the end user only pays for the usage or subscription of the service. SaaS providers are responsible for the infrastructure, platform, security, and maintenance of the software applications, and the end user only needs to create user access and configure options according to their preferences and needs. SaaS applications are usually designed for specific purposes or functions, such as email, collaboration, CRM, ERP, or accounting. The other service models are not as suitable for describing a cloud-hosted application in which the end user only creates user access and configures options. MaaS, or Monitoring as a Service, is a type of cloud service that provides monitoring and management of cloud resources and services, such as performance, availability, security, or compliance. MaaS is not a cloud-hosted application, but rather a cloud service that supports other cloud applications. PaaS, or Platform as a Service, is a cloud service model that delivers and manages the hardware and software resources to develop, test, and deploy applications through the cloud. PaaS provides the end user with a cloud-based platform that includes the operating system, middleware, runtime, database, and other tools and services. PaaS providers are responsible for the infrastructure, security, and maintenance of the platform, and the end user only needs to write and manage the code and data of their applications. PaaS applications are usually customized and developed by the end user, rather than provided by the cloud service provider. IaaS, or Infrastructure as a Service, is a cloud service model that delivers and manages the basic computing resources, such as servers, storage, networking, and virtualization, over the internet. IaaS provides the end user with a cloud-based infrastructure that can be used to run any software or application. IaaS providers are responsible for the hardware, security, and maintenance of the infrastructure, and the end user is responsible for the operating system, middleware, runtime, database, and applications. IaaS applications are usually more complex and require more configuration and management by the end user, rather than by the cloud service provider.

• Question 128:

  Which of the following describes the contractually allowed downtime for a cloud-hosted application?

  A. SOW

  B. SLA

  C. SOP

  D. SOA

  Correct Answer: B

  Explanation: An SLA (service level agreement) is a contract between a cloud service provider and a cloud customer that defines the expected level of service, performance, availability, and reliability of the cloud service. An SLA also specifies the contractually allowed downtime for a cloud-hosted application, which is the maximum amount of time that the application can be unavailable or inaccessible without violating the SLA. The contractually allowed downtime is usually expressed as a percentage of uptime, such as 99.9% or 99.99%, which corresponds to a certain number of hours or minutes per year, month, week, or day. For example, an SLA with 99.9% uptime means that the cloud service can be down for up to 8.76 hours per year, or 43.8 minutes per month, or 10.1 minutes per week, or 1.44 minutes per day. If the cloud service provider fails to meet the SLA, the cloud customer may be entitled to compensation or other remedies, such as credits, refunds, or termination of the contract. References: CompTIA Cloud Essentials+ CLO-002 Certification Study Guide, page 27-28; CompTIA Cloud Essentials+ Certification Training, CertMaster Learn for Cloud Essentials+, Module 2: Business Principles of Cloud Environments, Lesson 2.4: Cloud Service Agreements, Topic 2.4.2: Service Level Agreements

• Question 129:

  Which of the following results from implementing a proprietary SaaS solution when an organization does not ensure the solution adopts open standards? (Choose two.)

  A. Vendor lock-in

  B. Inability to enforce the SLA

  C. Lack of technical support

  D. Higher ongoing operational expenditure

  E. Integration issues

  F. Higher initial capital expenditure

  Correct Answer: AE

  Explanation: A proprietary SaaS solution is one that uses a specific vendor's software and platform, which may not be compatible with other vendors' solutions or industry standards. This can result in vendor lock-in, which means that the organization becomes dependent on the vendor and cannot easily switch to another provider or solution without significant costs or risks. Vendor lock-in can also limit the organization's ability to negotiate better terms or prices with the vendor. Integration issues can arise when the proprietary SaaS solution does not support open standards, which are widely accepted and interoperable protocols or formats that enable different systems or applications to communicate and exchange data. Open standards can facilitate integration with other cloud or on-premise solutions, as well as enhance portability and scalability of the cloud services. If the SaaS solution does not adopt open standards, the organization may face challenges or limitations in integrating the solution with its existing or future IT environment, which can affect the functionality, performance, and security of the cloud services. References: CompTIA Cloud Essentials+ Certification Study Guide, Second Edition (LO-002), Chapter 2: Cloud Concepts, Section 2.3: Cloud Service Models, p. 62-63.

• Question 130:

  A cloud developer chooses to use private key encryption for all traffic in a new application. Which of the following security concerns does this BEST describe?

  A. Integrity

  B. Confidentiality

  C. Availability

  D. Authorization

  Correct Answer: B

  Explanation: Private key encryption, also known as symmetric key encryption, is a method of encrypting data using a single secret key that is shared by both the sender and the receiver of the message1. Private key encryption ensures that only the authorized parties who have the same key can access the encrypted data, while preventing unauthorized parties from reading or modifying it. Therefore, private key encryption is mainly used to protect the confidentiality of data, which is the security concern that deals with preventing unauthorized disclosure of information2. Confidentiality is one of the three main goals of information security, along with integrity and availability. Integrity refers to the security concern that deals with preventing unauthorized modification or corruption of information. Availability refers to the security concern that deals with ensuring timely and reliable access to information2. Authorization, on the other hand, is not a security concern, but a security mechanism that deals with granting or denying access rights to information based on predefined policies and rules3. A cloud developer chooses to use private key encryption for all traffic in a new application. This best describes the security concern of confidentiality, as the developer wants to ensure that only the intended recipients can access the encrypted data, while keeping it secret from anyone else. References: 1: https://www.comptia.org/training/books/cloud-essentials-clo-002-study-guide, Chapter 8, page 274-275 2: https://www.comptia.org/training/books/cloud-essentials-clo-002-study- guide, Chapter 8, page 263-264 3: https://www.comptia.org/ training/books/cloud- essentials-clo-002-study-guide, Chapter 8, page 268-269