CompTIA CompTIA Certifications CV0-003 Questions & Answers

• Question 141:

  A cloud administrator is reviewing the annual contracts for all hosted solutions. Upon review of the contract for the hosted mail solution, the administrator notes the monthly subscription rate has increased every year. The provider has been in place for ten years, and there is a large amount of data being hosted. Which of the following is a barrier to switching providers?

  A. Service-level agreement

  B. Vendor lock-in

  C. Memorandum of understanding

  D. Encrypted data

  Correct Answer: B

  Vendor lock-in is a barrier to switching providers for a hosted mail solution that has increased its monthly subscription rate every year. Vendor lock-in is a situation where a customer becomes dependent on a vendor or provider for a product or service and faces difficulties or costs in switching to another vendor or provider. Vendor lock-in can occur due to various factors, such as proprietary technology, contractual obligations, data migration challenges, compatibility issues, etc. In this case, the customer may face vendor lock-in due to the large amount of data being hosted by the mail provider and the potential challenges or costs of transferring or migrating the data to another provider.

• Question 142:

  In an IaaS platform, which of the following actions would a systems administrator take FIRST to identify the scope of an incident?

  A. Conduct a memory acquisition.

  B. Snapshot all volumes attached to an instance.

  C. Retrieve data from a backup.

  D. Perform a traffic capture.

  Correct Answer: D

  The first step to identify the scope of an incident in an IaaS platform is to perform a traffic capture on the affected instances or network interfaces. This will help to determine the source, destination, and nature of the malicious or anomalous traffic, as well as the impact on the network performance and availability. A traffic capture can also provide evidence for further analysis and remediation. Reference: CompTIA Cloud+ Certification Exam Objectives, Domain 4.0 Troubleshooting, Objective 4.2 Given a scenario, troubleshoot security issues related to cloud implementations.

• Question 143:

  An organization recently deployed a private cloud on a cluster of systems that delivers compute, network, and storage resources in a single hardware, managed by an intelligent software. Which of the following BEST describes this type of deployment?

  A. High-performance computing

  B. Hyperconverged infrastructure

  C. Stand-alone computing

  D. Dynamic allocations

  Correct Answer: B

  Hyperconverged infrastructure (HCI) is a type of deployment that combines compute, network, and storage resources in a single hardware appliance that is managed by an intelligent software layer. HCI simplifies the configuration and management of cloud resources, reduces hardware costs and complexity, and improves scalability and performance. Reference: CompTIA Cloud+ Certification Exam Objectives, Domain 1.0 Configuration and Deployment, Objective 1.2 Given a scenario involving requirements for deploying an application in the cloud, select an appropriate solution design.

• Question 144:

  A systems administrator is helping to develop a disaster recovery solution. The solution must ensure all production capabilities are available within two hours. Which of the following will BEST meet this requirement?

  A. A hot site

  B. A warm site

  C. A backup site

  D. A cold site

  Correct Answer: A

  A hot site is what would best meet the requirement of ensuring all production capabilities are available within two hours for a disaster recovery solution. A disaster recovery solution is a plan or process of restoring normal operation and performance of a system or service after a disruption or disaster. A disaster recovery solution can use different types of sites or locations to store and recover data or resources, such as:

  A hot site: This is a site or location that has a fully operational and ready-to-use replica or copy of the original system or service, including data, resources, applications, etc. A hot site can provide benefits such as:

  Availability: A hot site can provide availability by ensuring that the system or service can be switched or transferred to the hot site immediately or within minutes after a disruption or disaster, without any downtime or interruption.

  Capability: A hot site can provide capability by ensuring that the system or service can function and perform at the same level or quality as the original system or service, without any loss or degradation.

  A warm site: This is a site or location that has a partially operational and ready-to-use replica or copy of the original system or service, including some data, resources, applications, etc. A warm site can provide benefits such as: Affordability: A warm site can provide affordability by reducing the cost of maintaining and updating the replica or copy of the original system or service, compared to a hot site.

  Flexibility: A warm site can provide flexibility by allowing customers to customize and configure the replica or copy of the original system or service according to their needs and preferences, compared to a hot site.

  A cold site: This is a site or location that has no operational and ready-to-use replica or copy of the original system or service, but only has the necessary infrastructure or facilities to support it, such as power, network, space, etc. A cold site can provide benefits such as:

  Scalability: A cold site can provide scalability by enabling customers to expand and grow their replica or copy of the original system or service as needed, without any limitations or constraints.

  Security: A cold site can provide security by minimizing the exposure or risk of the replica or copy of the original system or service to any threats or attacks, compared to a hot site or a warm site

  Reference: https://searchdisasterrecovery.techtarget.com/definition/hot-site

• Question 145:

  A disaster situation has occurred, and the entire team needs to be informed about the situation. Which of the following documents will help the administrator find the details of the relevant team members for escalation?

  A. Chain of custody

  B. Root cause analysis

  C. Playbook

  D. Call tree

  Correct Answer: D

  A call tree is what will help the administrator find the details of the relevant team members for escalation after a disaster situation has occurred and the entire team needs to be informed about the situation. A call tree is a document or diagram

  that shows the hierarchy or sequence of communication or notification among team members in case of an emergency or incident, such as a disaster situation. A call tree can help to find the details of the relevant team members for escalation

  by providing information such as:

  Name: This indicates who is involved in the communication or notification process, such as team members, managers, stakeholders, etc. Role: This indicates what is their function or responsibility in the communication or notification process,

  such as initiator, receiver, sender, etc. Contact: This indicates how they can be reached or contacted in the communication or notification process, such as phone number, email address, etc.

• Question 146:

  A cloud administrator is managing an organization's infrastructure in a public cloud. All servers are currently located in a single virtual network with a single firewall that all traffic must pass through. Per security requirements, production, QA, and development servers should not be able to communicate directly with each other. Which of the following should an administrator perform to comply with the security requirement?

  A. Create separate virtual networks for production, QA, and development servers. Move the servers to the appropriate virtual network. Apply a network security group to each virtual network that denies all traffic except for the firewall.

  B. Create separate network security groups for production, QA, and development servers. Apply the network security groups on the appropriate production, QA, and development servers. Peer the networks together.

  C. Create separate virtual networks for production, QA, and development servers. Move the servers to the appropriate virtual network. Peer the networks together.

  D. Create separate network security groups for production, QA, and development servers. Peer the networks together. Create static routes for each network to the firewall.

  Correct Answer: A

  These are the actions that the administrator should perform to comply with the security requirement of isolating production, QA, and development servers from each other in a public cloud environment:

  Create separate virtual networks for production, QA, and development servers: A virtual network is a logical isolation of network resources or systems within a cloud environment. Creating separate virtual networks for different types of servers

  can help to segregate them from each other and prevent direct communication or interference.

  Move the servers to the appropriate virtual network: Moving the servers to the appropriate virtual network can help to assign them to their respective roles and functions, as well as ensure that they follow the network policies and rules of their

  virtual network.

  Apply a network security group to each virtual network that denies all traffic except for the firewall: A network security group is a set of rules or policies that control and filter inbound and outbound network traffic for a virtual network or system.

  Applying a network security group to each virtual network that denies all traffic except for the firewall can help to enforce security and compliance by blocking any unauthorized or unwanted traffic between different types of servers, while

  allowing only necessary traffic through the firewall.

• Question 147:

  Which of the following should be considered for capacity planning?

  A. Requirements, licensing, and trend analysis

  B. Laws and regulations

  C. Regions, clusters, and containers

  D. Hypervisors and scalability

  Correct Answer: A

  These are the factors that should be considered for capacity planning in a cloud environment. Capacity planning is a process of estimating and allocating the necessary resources and performance to meet the current and future demands of

  cloud applications or services. Capacity planning can help to optimize costs, efficiency, and reliability of cloud resources or services. The factors that should be considered for capacity planning are:

  Requirements: These are the specifications or expectations of the cloud applications or services, such as functionality, availability, scalability, security, etc. Requirements can help to determine the type, amount, and quality of resources or

  services needed to meet the objectives and goals of the cloud applications or services.

  Licensing: This is the agreement or contract that grants customers the right to use or access certain cloud resources or services for a specific period or fee. Licensing can affect the cost, availability, and compliance of cloud resources or

  services. Licensing can help to determine the budget, duration, and scope of using or accessing cloud resources or services.

  Trend analysis: This is the technique of analyzing historical and current data to identify patterns, changes, or fluctuations in demand or usage of cloud resources or services. Trend analysis can help to predict and anticipate future demand or

  usage of cloud resources or services, as well as identify any opportunities or challenges that may arise.

• Question 148:

  A systems administrator is performing upgrades to all the hypervisors in the environment. Which of the following components of the hypervisors should be upgraded? (Choose two.)

  A. The fabric interconnects

  B. The virtual appliances

  C. The firmware

  D. The virtual machines

  E. The baselines

  F. The operating system

  Correct Answer: CF

  These are the components of the hypervisors that should be upgraded by the administrator who is performing upgrades to all the hypervisors in the environment. A hypervisor is a software or hardware that allows multiple VMs (Virtual

  Machines) to run on a single physical host or server. A hypervisor consists of various components, such as:

  The firmware: This is the software that controls the basic functions and operations of the hardware or device. The firmware can affect the performance, compatibility, and security of the hypervisor and the VMs. The firmware should be

  upgraded to ensure that it supports the latest features and functions of the hardware or device, as well as fix any bugs or vulnerabilities.

  The operating system: This is the software that manages the resources and activities of the hypervisor and the VMs. The operating system can affect the functionality, reliability, and efficiency of the hypervisor and the VMs. The operating

  system should be upgraded to ensure that it supports the latest applications and services of the hypervisor and the VMs, as well as improve stability and performance.

• Question 149:

  A company has hired a security firm to perform a vulnerability assessment of its environment. In the first phase, an engineer needs to scan the network services exposed by the hosts. Which of the following will help achieve this with the LEAST privileges?

  A. An agent-based scan

  B. A credentialed scan

  C. A network-based scan

  D. An application scan

  Correct Answer: C

  A network-based scan is a type of vulnerability assessment that scans the network services exposed by the hosts without requiring any credentials or agents. This type of scan will help achieve the objective of scanning the network services with the least privileges, as it does not need any access to the hosts or their internal configurations. A network-based scan can identify open ports, running services, and potential vulnerabilities on the hosts. Reference: CompTIA Cloud+ Certification Exam Objectives, Domain 2.0 Security, Objective 2.4 Given a scenario, implement security automation and orchestration in a cloud environment.

• Question 150:

  A systems administrator is working on the backup schedule for a critical business application that is running in a private cloud. Which of the following would help the administrator schedule the frequency of the backup job?

  A. RPO

  B. MTTR

  C. SLA

  D. RTO

  Correct Answer: A

  RPO (Recovery Point Objective) is what would help the administrator schedule the frequency of the backup job for a critical business application that is running in a private cloud. RPO is a metric that measures how much data can be lost or how far back in time a recovery point can be without causing significant impact or damage. RPO can help to schedule the frequency of the backup job by determining how often backups should be performed to minimize data loss in case of a disruption or disaster.