A systems administrator is deploying a new storage array for backups. The array provides 1PB of raw disk space and uses 14TB nearline SAS drives. The solution must tolerate at least two failed drives in a single RAID set.
Which of the following RAID levels satisfies this requirement?
A. RAID 0
B. RAID 1
C. RAID 5
D. RAID 6
E. RAID 10
Correct Answer: D
RAID 6 is a type of RAID level that uses block-level striping with two parity blocks distributed across all member disks. RAID 6 can provide redundancy and fault tolerance, as it can survive the failure of up to two disks without losing any data. RAID 6 can also support large data sets and high-capacity disks, as it can offer more usable space and better performance than other RAID levels with similar features, such as RAID 5 or RAID
10. RAID 6 is the best RAID level for a systems administrator to use when deploying a new storage array for backups that provides 1PB of raw disk space and uses 14TB nearline SAS drives and must tolerate at least two failed drives in a single RAID set. References: CompTIA Cloud+ Certification Exam Objectives, page 9, section 1.4
An organization suffered a critical failure of its primary datacenter and made the decision to switch to the DR site. After one week of using the DR site, the primary datacenter is now ready to resume operations.
Which of the following is the MOST efficient way to bring the block storage in the primary datacenter up to date with the DR site?
A. Set up replication.
B. Copy the data across both sites.
C. Restore incremental backups.
D. Restore full backups.
Correct Answer: A
Setting up replication is the most efficient way to bring the block storage in the primary datacenter up to date with the DR site after a critical failure. Replication is a process of copying data from one location to another in real-time or near real-time. Replication can be synchronous or asynchronous, depending on the latency and bandwidth requirements. Replication can ensure data consistency and availability across multiple sites and facilitate faster recovery.
A systems administrator is trying to establish an RDP session from a desktop to a server in the cloud. However, the connection appears to be refused even through the VM is responding to ICMP echo requests. Which of the following should the administrator check FIRST?
A. The firewall
B. The subnet
C. The gateway
D. The services
Correct Answer: A
The firewall is the first thing that the administrator should check if an RDP (Remote Desktop Protocol) session from a desktop to a server in the cloud is refused even though the VM is responding to ICMP echo requests. A firewall is a device or software that controls the incoming and outgoing network traffic based on predefined rules or policies. A firewall may block RDP connections by default or require specific ports or rules to be opened or configured.
Question 284:
A systems administrator needs to configure monitoring for a private cloud environment. The administrator has decided to use SNMP for this task. Which of the following ports should the administrator open on the monitoring server's firewall?
A. 53
B. 123
C. 139
D. 161
Correct Answer: D
Port 161 is the default port used by Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP) to communicate with network devices and collect information about their status, performance, configuration, and events. Opening port 161 on the monitoring server's firewall will allow SNMP traffic to pass through and enable monitoring for a private cloud environment. If port 161 is closed or blocked, SNMP traffic will be denied or dropped, resulting in a failure to monitor the network devices. References: CompTIA Cloud+ Certification Exam Objectives, page 15, section 2.8
A company wants to implement business continuity, and the cloud solution architect needs to design the correct solution.
Which of the following will provide the data to measure business continuity? (Choose two.)
A. A service-level agreement
B. Automation scripts
C. Playbooks
D. A network diagram
E. A backup and restore
F. A recovery time objective
Correct Answer: AF
A service-level agreement (SLA) is a contract or document that defines the level of service and performance expected from a service provider or vendor. A recovery time objective (RTO) is a metric that specifies the maximum acceptable time for restoring a system or service after a disruption or outage. Both SLA and RTO can provide the data to measure business continuity, as they can indicate the availability, reliability, and recoverability of a system or service in case of a failure or disaster. SLA and RTO can also help evaluate the effectiveness and efficiency of the business continuity plan and solution. References: CompTIA Cloud+ Certification Exam Objectives, page 20, section 4.2
Question 286:
An IaaS provider has numerous devices and services that are commissioned and decommissioned automatically on an ongoing basis. The cloud administrator needs to implement a solution that will help reduce administrative overhead.
Which of the following will accomplish this task?
A. IPAM
B. NAC
C. NTP
D. DNS
Correct Answer: A
IP address management (IPAM) is a type of tool or system that automates and standardizes the allocation, tracking, and management of IP addresses in an IP network. IPAM can help reduce administrative overhead for an IaaS provider that has numerous devices and services that are commissioned and decommissioned automatically on an ongoing basis, as it can simplify and centralize the process of assigning and reclaiming IP addresses for different devices and services without manual intervention or errors. IPAM can also help optimize network performance and security, as it can monitor and report any issues or conflicts related to IP addresses. References: CompTIA Cloud+ Certification Exam Objectives, page 15, section 2.8
An organization requires the following to be achieved between the finance and marketing departments:
1.
Allow HTTPS/HTTP.
2.
Disable FTP and SMB traffic.
Which of the following is the MOST suitable method to meet the requirements?
A. Implement an ADC solution to load balance the VLAN traffic
B. Configure an ACL between the VLANs
C. Implement 802.1X in these VLANs
D. Configure on-demand routing between the VLANs
Correct Answer: B
An access control list (ACL) is a set of rules that defines which traffic is allowed or denied between different network segments or devices. An ACL can be used to filter traffic based on various criteria, such as source and destination addresses, ports, protocols, and applications. Configuring an ACL between the VLANs of the finance and marketing departments is the most suitable method to meet the requirements of allowing HTTPS/HTTP and disabling FTP and SMB traffic. An ACL can specify which ports and protocols are permitted or blocked between the VLANs, such as allowing port 80 (HTTP) and port 443 (HTTPS), and denying port 21 (FTP) and port 445 (SMB). References: [CompTIA Cloud+ Certification Exam Objectives], page 15, section 2.8
Question 288:
A systems administrator wants to have near-real-time information on the volume of data being exchanged between an application server and its clients on the Internet.
Which of the following should the systems administrator implement to achieve this objective?
A. A stateful firewall
B. DLP
C. DNSSEC
D. Network flows
Correct Answer: D
Network flows are records of network traffic that capture information such as source and destination IP addresses, ports, protocols, timestamps, and byte and packet counts. Network flows can provide near-real-time information on the volume of data being exchanged between a system and its clients on the Internet, as they can measure and monitor the amount and rate of network traffic for each connection or session. Network flows can also help analyze network performance, troubleshoot network issues, and detect network anomalies or security incidents. A systems administrator should implement network flows to achieve the objective of having near-real-time information on the volume of data being exchanged between an application server and its clients on the Internet. References: CompTIA Cloud+ Certification Exam Objectives, page 16, section 3.2
Question 289:
A company has deployed a new cloud solution and is required to meet security compliance.
Which of the following will MOST likely be executed in the cloud solution to meet security requirements?
A. Performance testing
B. Regression testing
C. Vulnerability testing
D. Usability testing
Correct Answer: C
Vulnerability testing is a type of security testing that identifies and evaluates the weaknesses or flaws in a system or service that could be exploited by attackers. Vulnerability testing can help meet security compliance requirements when deploying a new cloud solution, as it can reveal any potential security risks or gaps in the cloud environment and provide recommendations for remediation or mitigation. Vulnerability testing can also help improve security posture and performance, as it can prevent or reduce the impact of cyberattacks, data breaches, or service disruptions. References: CompTIA Cloud+ Certification Exam Objectives, page 14, section 2.7
Question 290:
A technician just received the lessons learned from some recent data that was lost due to an on-premises file-server crash. The action point is to change the backup strategy to minimize manual intervention. Which of the following is the BEST approach for the technician to implement?
A. Backup as a service
B. RAID 1
C. Long-term storage
D. New backup devices
Correct Answer: A
Backup as a service (BaaS) is the best approach for changing the backup strategy to minimize manual intervention after a data loss due to an on-premises file-server crash. BaaS is a cloud-based service that provides backup and recovery solutions for customers' data and systems. BaaS can automate and simplify backup processes by using cloud storage, encryption, deduplication, compression, scheduling, etc., without requiring customers to purchase or maintain backup hardware or software.
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