CompTIA CompTIA Certifications CV0-003 Questions & Answers

• Question 331:

  An organization is developing a new solution for hosting an external website. The systems administrator needs the ability to manage the OS. Which of the following methods would be MOST suitable to achieve this objective?

  A. Deploy web servers into an laaS provider.

  B. Implement a cloud-based VDI solution.

  C. Provision web servers in a container environment.

  D. Use PaaS components in the cloud to implement the product.

  Correct Answer: A

  Deploying web servers into an IaaS (Infrastructure as a Service) provider is the most suitable method to achieve the objective of hosting an external website and managing the OS. IaaS is a cloud service model that provides basic computing resources such as servers, storage, network, etc., to the customers. The customers have full control and flexibility over these resources and can install and configure any software they need on them. IaaS is suitable for hosting web servers and managing the OS, as it allows the customers to choose their preferred OS, web server software, settings, etc., and customize them according to their needs.

• Question 332:

  A systems administrator is reviewing two CPU models for a cloud deployment. Both CPUs have the same number of cores/threads and run at the same clock speed.

  Which of the following will BEST identify the CPU with more computational power?

  A. Simultaneous multithreading

  B. Bus speed

  C. L3 cache

  D. Instructions per cycle

  Correct Answer: D

  Instructions per cycle (IPC) is a metric that measures how many instructions a CPU can execute in one clock cycle. IPC can help identify the CPU with more computational power when comparing two CPU models that have the same number of cores/threads and run at the same clock speed, as it indicates the efficiency and performance of the CPU architecture and design. A higher IPC means that the CPU can process more instructions in less time, resulting in faster and better performance. References: CompTIA Cloud+ Certification Exam Objectives, page 9, section 1.4 Reference: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Central_processing_unit

• Question 333:

  In an existing IaaS instance, it is required to deploy a single application that has different versions.

  Which of the following should be recommended to meet this requirement?

  A. Deploy using containers

  B. Install a Type 2 hypervisor

  C. Enable SR-IOV on the host

  D. Create snapshots

  Correct Answer: A

  Containers are a type of deployment technology that packages an application and its dependencies into a lightweight and portable unit that can run on any platform or environment. Containers can help deploy a single application that has different versions in an existing IaaS instance, as they can isolate and run multiple versions of the same application without any conflicts or interference. Containers can also enable faster and easier deployment, scaling, and management of cloud-based applications. References: CompTIA Cloud+ Certification Exam Objectives, page 11, section 1.6

• Question 334:

  A company has a cloud infrastructure service, and the cloud architect needs to set up a DR site.

  Which of the following should be configured in between the cloud environment and the DR site?

  A. Failback

  B. Playbook

  C. Zoning

  D. Replication

  Correct Answer: D

  Replication is a process of copying or synchronizing data from one location to another to ensure consistency and availability. Replication can help set up a disaster recovery (DR) site for a cloud environment, as it can enable data backup and recovery in case of a failure or outage in the primary site. Replication can also improve performance and reliability, as it can reduce latency and load by distributing data across multiple sites. Replication should be configured between the cloud environment and the DR site to ensure data protection and continuity. References: CompTIA Cloud+ Certification Exam Objectives, page 10, section 1.5

• Question 335:

  A company recently subscribed to a SaaS collaboration service for its business users. The company also has an on-premises collaboration solution and would like users to have a seamless experience regardless of the collaboration solution being used.

  Which of the following should the administrator implement?

  A. LDAP

  B. WAF

  C. VDI

  D. SSO

  Correct Answer: D

  Single sign-on (SSO) is a type of authentication mechanism that allows users to access multiple systems or applications with a single login credential. SSO can help users have a seamless experience regardless of the collaboration solution being used, as it can eliminate the need for multiple logins and passwords for different systems or applications. SSO can also improve user convenience, productivity, and security, as it can simplify the login process, reduce login errors, and enhance password management. References: CompTIA Cloud+ Certification Exam Objectives, page 14, section 2.7

• Question 336:

  Which of the following cloud services is fully managed?

  A. IaaS

  B. GPU in the cloud

  C. IoT

  D. Serverless compute

  E. SaaS

  Correct Answer: E

  SaaS (Software as a Service) is a cloud service model that provides fully managed applications to the end users. The users do not have to worry about installing, updating, or maintaining the software, as the cloud provider handles all these tasks. Examples of SaaS are Gmail, Office 365, Salesforce, etc.

• Question 337:

  A company is concerned about the security of its data repository that contains customer PII. A systems administrator is asked to deploy a security control that will prevent the exfiltration of such data. Which of the following should the systems administrator implement?

  A. DLP

  B. WAF

  C. FIM

  D. ADC

  Correct Answer: A

  Implementing DLP (Data Loss Prevention) is the best solution to prevent the exfiltration of customer PII (Personally Identifiable Information) from a data repository. DLP is a security control that monitors, detects, and blocks sensitive data from leaving or being accessed by unauthorized parties. DLP can be applied at different levels, such as network, endpoint, storage, or cloud. DLP can help to protect customer PII from being leaked, stolen, or compromised.

  Reference: https://cloud.google.com/blog/products/identity-security/4-steps-to-stop-data-exfiltration-with-google-cloud

• Question 338:

  A developer is no longer able to access a public cloud API deployment, which was working ten minutes prior.

  Which of the following is MOST likely the cause?

  A. API provider rate limiting

  B. Invalid API token

  C. Depleted network bandwidth

  D. Invalid API request

  Correct Answer: B

  An API token is typically used to authenticate the client making API requests to the cloud API. If the token becomes invalid, either because it has expired or because it has been revoked, the client will no longer be able to access the API. This can result in the developer being unable to access the API deployment, even if it was working previously.

  API provider rate limiting, depleted network bandwidth, and invalid API request can also cause issues with accessing an API deployment, but are less likely to be the cause if the API was working previously and suddenly stopped. These issues are more likely to result in a slow or inconsistent response from the API, rather than a complete inability to access it.

• Question 339:

  A company is currently running a website on site. However, because of a business requirement to reduce current RTO from 12 hours to one hour, and the RPO from one day to eight hours, the company is considering operating in a hybrid environment. The website uses mostly static files and a small relational database.

  Which of the following should the cloud architect implement to achieve the objective at the LOWEST cost possible?

  A. Implement a load-balanced environment in the cloud that is equivalent to the current on-premises setup and use DNS to shift the load from on premises to cloud.

  B. Implement backups to cloud storage and infrastructure as code to provision the environment automatically when the on-premises site is down. Restore the data from the backups.

  C. Implement a website replica in the cloud with auto-scaling using the smallest possible footprint. Use DNS to shift the load from on premises to the cloud.

  D. Implement a CDN that caches all requests with a higher TTL and deploy the laaS instances manually in case of disaster. Upload the backup on demand to the cloud to restore on the new instances.

  Correct Answer: C

  This is the best solution to achieve the objective of reducing current RTO (Recovery Time Objective) from 12 hours to one hour, and RPO (Recovery Point Objective) from one day to eight hours, at the lowest cost possible, for a website that uses mostly static files and a small relational database. RTO is a metric that measures how quickly a system or service can be restored after a disruption or disaster. RPO is a metric that measures how much data can be lost or how far back in time a recovery point can be without causing significant impact or damage. To reduce RTO and RPO, the administrator should implement a website replica in the cloud with auto-scaling using the smallest possible footprint. A website replica is a copy or backup of a website that can be used for recovery or failover purposes. Auto-scaling is a feature that allows cloud resources or systems to adjust their capacity and performance according to demand or workload. Using auto-scaling with the smallest possible footprint can minimize costs by using only the necessary resources and scaling up or down as needed. The administrator should also use DNS (Domain Name System) to shift the load from on premises to the cloud. DNS is a service that translates domain names into IP addresses and vice versa. Using DNS, the administrator can redirect traffic from the on-premises website to the cloud replica in case of a disruption or disaster, and vice versa when recovery is complete.

• Question 340:

  A VDI administrator has received reports of poor application performance.

  Which of the following should the administrator troubleshoot FIRST?

  A. The network environment

  B. Container resources

  C. Client devices

  D. Server resources

  Correct Answer: A

  The network environment is the set of network devices, connections, protocols, and configurations that enable communication and data transfer between different systems and applications. The network environment can affect the performance of a virtual desktop infrastructure (VDI) by influencing factors such as bandwidth, latency, jitter, packet loss, and congestion. Poor network performance can result in slow or unreliable application delivery, degraded user experience, and reduced productivity. Therefore, troubleshooting the network environment should be the first step for a VDI administrator who receives reports of poor application performance. References: CompTIA Cloud+ Certification Exam Objectives, page 17, section 3.4