HP HP Certifications HPE6-A84 Questions & Answers

• Question 21:

  Several AOS-CX switches are responding to SNMPv2 GET requests for the public community. The customer only permits SNMPv3. You have asked a network admin to fix this problem. The admin says, "I tried to remove the community, but the CLI output an error."

  What should you recommend to remediate the vulnerability and meet the customer's requirements?

  A. Enabling control plane policing to automatically drop SNMP GET requests

  B. Setting the snmp-server settings to "snmpv3-only"

  C. Adding an SNMP community with a long random name

  D. Enabling SNMPv3, which implicitly disables SNMPv1/v2

  Correct Answer: B

  This is because SNMPv3 is a secure version of SNMP that provides authentication, encryption, and access control for network management. SNMPv3-only is a configuration option on AOS-CX switches that disables SNMPv1 and SNMPv2c, which are insecure versions of SNMP that use plain text community strings for authentication. By setting the snmp-server settings to "snmpv3-only", the switch will only respond to SNMPv3 requests and reject any SNMPv1 or SNMPv2c requests, thus remedying the vulnerability and meeting the customer's requirements.

  A. Enabling control plane policing to automatically drop SNMP GET requests. This is not a valid recommendation because control plane policing is a feature that protects the switch from denial-of-service (DoS) attacks by limiting the rate of traffic sent to the CPU. Control plane policing does not disable SNMPv1 or SNMPv2c, but rather applies a rate limit to all SNMP requests, regardless of the version. Moreover, control plane policing might also drop legitimate SNMP requests if they exceed the rate limit, which could affect the network management.

  C. Adding an SNMP community with a long random name. This is not a valid recommendation because an SNMP community is a shared secret that acts as a password for accessing network devices using SNMPv1 or SNMPv2c. Adding an SNMP community with a long random name does not disable SNMPv1 or SNMPv2c, but rather creates another community string that can be used for authentication. Moreover, adding an SNMP community with a long random name does not improve the security of SNMPv1 or SNMPv2c, as the community string is still transmitted in plain text and can be intercepted by an attacker.

  D. Enabling SNMPv3, which implicitly disables SNMPv1/v2. This is not a valid recommendation because enabling SNMPv3 does not implicitly disable SNMPv1 or SNMPv2c on AOS-CX switches. Enabling SNMPv3 only adds support for the secure version of SNMP, but does not remove support for the insecure versions. Therefore, enabling SNMPv3 alone does not remedy the vulnerability or meet the customer's requirements.

• Question 22:

  Refer to the scenario.

  A customer is migrating from on-prem AD to Azure AD as its sole domain solution. The customer also manages both wired and wireless devices with Microsoft Endpoint Manager (Intune).

  The customer wants to improve security for the network edge. You are helping the customer design a ClearPass deployment for this purpose. Aruba network devices will authenticate wireless and wired clients to an Aruba ClearPass Policy Manager (CPPM) cluster (which uses version 6.10).

  The customer has several requirements for authentication. The clients should only pass EAP-TLS authentication if a query to Azure AD shows that they have accounts in Azure AD. To further refine the clients' privileges, ClearPass also should use information collected by Intune to make access control decisions.

  You are planning to use Azure AD as the authentication source in 802.1X services.

  What should you make sure that the customer understands is required?

  A. An app registration on Azure AD that references the CPPM's FQDN

  B. Windows 365 subscriptions

  C. CPPM's RADIUS certificate was imported as trusted in the Azure AD directory

  D. Azure AD Domain Services

  Correct Answer: A

  To use Azure AD as the authentication source in 802.1X services, you need to configure CPPM as a SAML service provider and Azure AD as a SAML identity provider. This allows CPPM to use Azure AD for user authentication and role mapping. To do this, you need to create an app registration on Azure AD that references the CPPM's FQDN as the reply URL and the entity ID. You also need to grant the app registration the required permissions to access user information from Azure AD1

• Question 23:

  Refer to the scenario.

  An organization wants the AOS-CX switch to trigger an alert if its RADIUS server (cp.acnsxtest.local) rejects an unusual number of client authentication requests per hour. After some discussions with other Aruba admins, you are still not sure how many rejections are usual or unusual. You expect that the value could be different on each switch. You are helping the developer understand how to develop an NAE script for this use case.

  The developer explains that they plan to define the rule with logic like this:

  monitor > value

  However, the developer asks you what value to include.

  What should you recommend?

  A. Checking one of the access switches' RADIUS statistics and adding 10 to the number listed for rejects

  B. Defining a baseline and referring to it for the value

  C. Using 10 (per hour) as a good starting point for the value

  D. Defining a parameter and referring to it (self ^ramsfname]) for the value

  Correct Answer: D

  This is because a parameter is a variable that can be defined and modified by the user or the script, and can be used to customize the behavior and output of the NAE script. A parameter can be referred to by using the syntax self ^ramsfname], where ramsfname is the name of the parameter. By defining a parameter for the value, the developer can make the NAE script more flexible and adaptable to different scenarios and switches. The parameter can be set to a default value, such as 10, but it can also be changed by the user or the script based on the network conditions and requirements. For example, the parameter can be adjusted dynamically based on the average or standard deviation of the number of rejects per hour, or based on the feedback from the user or other admins. This way, the NAE script can trigger an alert only when the number of rejects is truly unusual and not just arbitrary. A. Checking one of the access switches' RADIUS statistics and adding 10 to the number listed for rejects. This is not a good recommendation because it does not account for the variability and diversity of the network environment and switches. The number of rejects listed for one switch might not be representative or relevant for another switch, as different switches might have different traffic patterns, client types, RADIUS configurations, etc. Moreover, adding 10 to the number of rejects is an arbitrary and fixed value that might not reflect the actual threshold for triggering an alert. B. Defining a baseline and referring to it for the value. This is not a bad recommendation, but it is not as good as defining a parameter. A baseline is a reference point that represents the normal or expected state of a network metric or performance indicator. A baseline can be used to compare and contrast the current network situation and detect any anomalies or deviations. However, a baseline might not be easy or accurate to define, as it might require historical data, statistical analysis, or expert judgment. Moreover, a baseline might not be stable or constant, as it might change over time due to network growth, evolution, or optimization.

  C. Using 10 (per hour) as a good starting point for the value. This is not a good recommendation because it is an arbitrary and fixed value that might not reflect the actual threshold for triggering an alert. Using 10 (per hour) as the value might result in false positives or false negatives, depending on the network conditions and switches. For example, if the normal number of rejects per hour is 5, then using 10 as the value might trigger an alert too frequently and unnecessarily. On the other hand, if the normal number of rejects per hour is 15, then using 10 as the value might miss some important alerts and risks.

• Question 24:

  A company has an Aruba ClearPass server at 10.47.47.8, FQDN radius.acnsxtest.local. This exhibit shows ClearPass Policy Manager's (CPPM's) settings for an Aruba Mobility Controller (MC).

  

  The MC is already configured with RADIUS authentication settings for CPPM, and RADIUS requests between the MC and CPPM are working. A network admin enters and commits this command to enable dynamic authorization on the MC:

  aaa rfc-3576-server 10.47.47.8

  But when CPPM sends CoA requests to the MC, they are not working. This exhibit shows the RFC 3576 server statistics on the MC:

  

  How could you fix this issue?

  A. Change the UDP port in the MCs' RFC 3576 server config to 3799.

  B. Enable RadSec on the MCs' RFC 3676 server config.

  C. Configure the MC to obtain the time from a valid NTP server.

  D. Make sure that CPPM is using an ArubaOS Wireless RADIUS CoA enforcement profile.

  Correct Answer: A

  Dynamic authorization is a feature that allows CPPM to send change of authorization (CoA) or disconnect messages to the MC to modify or terminate a user session based on certain conditions or events 1. Dynamic authorization uses the RFC 3576 protocol, which is an extension of the RADIUS protocol 2. To enable dynamic authorization on the MC, you need to configure the IP address and UDP port of the CPPM server as the RFC 3576 server on the MC 3. The default UDP port for RFC 3576 is 3799, but it can be changed on the CPPM server . The MC and CPPM must use the same UDP port for dynamic authorization to work properly 3. In this scenario, the MC is configured with the IP address of the CPPM server (10.47.47.8) as the RFC 3576 server, but it is using the default UDP port of 3799. However, according to the exhibit, the CPPM server is using a different UDP port of 1700 for dynamic authorization . This mismatch causes the CoA requests from CPPM to fail on the MC, as shown by the statistics . To fix this issue, you need to change the UDP port in the MCs' RFC 3576 server config to match the UDP port used by CPPM, which is 1700 in this case. Alternatively, you can change the UDP port in CPPM to match the default UDP port of 3799 on the MC. Either way, you need to ensure that both devices use the same UDP port for dynamic authorization .

• Question 25:

  A customer has an AOS 10 architecture, which includes Aruba APs. Admins have recently enabled WIDS at the high level. They also enabled alerts and email notifications for several events, as shown in the exhibit.

  

  Admins are complaining that they are getting so many emails that they have to ignore them, so they are going to turn off all notifications.

  What is one step you could recommend trying first?

  A. Send the email notifications directly to a specific folder, and only check the folder once a week.

  B. Disable email notifications for Roque AP, but leave the Infrastructure Attack Detected and Client Attack Detected notifications on.

  C. Change the WIDS level to custom, and enable only the checks most likely to indicate real threats.

  D. Disable just the Rogue AP and Client Attack Detected alerts, as they overlap with the Infrastructure Attack Detected alert.

  Correct Answer: C

  According to the AOS 10 documentation1, WIDS is a feature that monitors the radio spectrum for the presence of unauthorized, rogue access points and the use of wireless attack tools. WIDS can be configured at different levels, such as low, medium, high, or custom. The higher the level, the more checks are enabled and the more alerts are generated. However, not all checks are equally relevant or indicative of real threats. Some checks may generate false positives or unnecessary alerts that can overwhelm the administrators and reduce the effectiveness of WIDS. Therefore, one step that could be recommended to reduce the number of email notifications is to change the WIDS level to custom, and enable only the checks most likely to indicate real threats. This way, the administrators can fine-tune the WIDS settings to suit their network environment and security needs, and avoid getting flooded with irrelevant or redundant alerts. Option C is the correct answer. Option A is incorrect because sending the email notifications directly to a specific folder and only checking the folder once a week is not a good practice for security management. This could lead to missing or ignoring important alerts that require immediate attention or action. Moreover, this does not solve the problem of getting too many emails in the first place. Option B is incorrect because disabling email notifications for Rogue AP, but leaving the Infrastructure Attack Detected and Client Attack Detected notifications on, is not a sufficient solution. Rogue APs are unauthorized access points that can pose a serious security risk to the network, as they can be used to intercept or steal sensitive data, launch attacks, or compromise network performance. Therefore, disabling email notifications for Rogue APs could result in missing critical alerts that need to be addressed. Option D is incorrect because disabling just the Rogue AP and Client Attack Detected alerts, as they overlap with the Infrastructure Attack Detected alert, is not a valid assumption. The Infrastructure Attack Detected alert covers a broad range of attacks that target the network infrastructure, such as deauthentication attacks, spoofing attacks, denial-of-service attacks, etc. The Rogue AP and Client Attack Detected alerts are more specific and focus on detecting and classifying rogue devices and clients that may be involved in such attacks. Therefore, disabling these alerts could result in losing valuable information about the source and nature of the attacks.

• Question 26:

  A customer's admins have added RF Protect licenses and enabled WIDS for a customer's AOS 8-based solution. The customer wants to use the built-in capabilities of APs without deploying dedicated air monitors (AMs). Admins tested rogue AP detection by connecting an unauthorized wireless AP to a switch. The rogue AP was not detected even after several hours.

  What is one point about which you should ask?

  A. Whether APs' switch ports support all the VLANs that are accessible at the edge

  B. Whether admins enabled wireless containment

  C. Whether admins set at least one radio on each AP to air monitor mode

  D. Whether the customer is using non-standard Wi-Fi channels in the deployment

  Correct Answer: C

  RF Protect is a feature that enables wireless intrusion detection and prevention system (WIDS/WIPS) capabilities on AOS 8-based solutions. WIDS/WIPS allows detecting and mitigating rogue APs, unauthorized clients, and other wireless threats. RF Protect requires RF Protect licenses to be installed and WIDS to be enabled on the Mobility Master (MM). To use the built-in capabilities of APs for WIDS/WIPS, without deploying dedicated air monitors (AMs), admins need to set at least one radio on each AP to air monitor mode. Air monitor mode allows the AP to scan the wireless spectrum and report any wireless activity or anomalies to the MM. Air monitor mode does not affect the other radio on the AP, which can still serve clients in access mode. By setting at least one radio on each AP to air monitor mode, admins can achieve full coverage and visibility of the wireless environment and detect rogue APs. If admins do not set any radio on the APs to air monitor mode, the APs will not scan the wireless spectrum or report any wireless activity or anomalies to the MM. This means that the APs will not be able to detect rogue APs, even if they are connected to the same network. Therefore, admins should check whether they have set at least one radio on each AP to air monitor mode.

• Question 27:

  A company has Aruba gateways that are Implementing gateway IDS/IPS in IDS mode. The customer complains that admins are receiving too frequent of repeat email notifications for the same threat. The threat itself might be one that the admins should investigate, but the customer does not want the email notification to repeat as often.

  Which setting should you adjust in Aruba Central?

  A. Report scheduling settings

  B. Alert duration and threshold settings

  C. The IDS policy setting (strict, medium, or lenient)

  D. The allowlist settings in the IDS policy

  Correct Answer: B

  Alert duration and threshold settings are used to control how often and under what conditions email notifications are sent for gateway IDS/IPS events 1. By adjusting these settings, the customer can reduce the frequency of repeat email

  notifications for the same threat, while still being informed of any critical or new threats. To adjust the alert duration and threshold settings in Aruba Central, the customer can follow these steps 1:

  In the Aruba Central app, set the filter to Global, a group, or a device.

  Under Analyze, click Alerts and Events.

  Click the Config icon to open the Alert Severities and Notifications page. Select the Gateway IDS/IPS tab to view the alert categories and severities for gateway IDS/IPS events.

  Click on an alert category to expand it and view the alert duration and threshold settings for each severity level.

  Enter a value in minutes for the alert duration. This is the time period during which the alert is active and email notifications are sent. Enter a value for the alert threshold. This is the number of times the alert must be triggered within the alert

  duration before an email notification is sent.

  Click Save.

  By increasing the alert duration and/or threshold values, the customer can reduce the number of email notifications for recurring threats, as they will only be sent when the threshold is reached within the duration. For example, if the customer sets the alert duration to 60 minutes and the alert threshold to 10 for a Critical severity level, then an email notification will only be sent if the same threat occurs 10 times or more within an hour.

• Question 28:

  Refer to the scenario.

  A customer requires these rights for clients in the "medical-mobile" AOS firewall role on Aruba Mobility Controllers (MCs):

  1.

  Permitted to receive IP addresses with DHCP

  2.

  Permitted access to DNS services from 10.8.9.7 and no other server

  3.

  Permitted access to all subnets in the 10.1.0.0/16 range except denied access to 10.1.12.0/22

  4.

  Denied access to other 10.0.0.0/8 subnets

  5.

  Permitted access to the Internet

  6.

  Denied access to the WLAN for a period of time if they send any SSH traffic

  7.

  Denied access to the WLAN for a period of time if they send any Telnet traffic

  8.

  Denied access to all high-risk websites

  External devices should not be permitted to initiate sessions with "medical-mobile" clients, only send return traffic.

  The exhibits below show the configuration for the role.

  

  There are multiple issues with the configuration.

  What is one of the changes that you must make to the policies to meet the scenario requirements? (In the options, rules in a policy are referenced from top to bottom. For example, "medical-mobile" rule 1 is "ipv4 any any svc-dhcp permit," and rule 8 is "ipv4 any any any permit'.)

  A. In the "medical-mobile" policy, change the source in rule 1 to "user."

  B. In the "medical-mobile" policy, change the subnet mask in rule 3 to 255.255.248.0.

  C. In the "medical-mobile" policy, move rules 6 and 7 to the top of the list.

  D. Move the rule in the "apprf-medical-mobile-sacl" policy between rules 7 and 8 in the "medical-mobile" policy.

  Correct Answer: C

  Rules 6 and 7 in the "medical-mobile" policy are used to deny access to the WLAN for a period of time if the clients send any SSH or Telnet traffic, as required by the scenario. However, these rules are currently placed below rule 5, which permits access to the Internet for any traffic. This means that rule 5 will override rules 6 and 7, and the clients will not be denied access to the WLAN even if they send SSH or Telnet traffic. To fix this issue, rules 6 and 7 should be moved to the top of the list, before rule 5. This way, rules 6 and 7 will take precedence over rule 5, and the clients will be denied access to the WLAN if they send SSH or Telnet traffic, as expected.

• Question 29:

  Refer to the scenario.

  # Introduction to the customer

  You are helping a company add Aruba ClearPass to their network, which uses Aruba network infrastructure devices.

  The company currently has a Windows domain and Windows CA. The Window CA issues certificates to domain computers, domain users, and servers such as domain controllers. An example of a certificate issued by the Windows CA is

  shown here.

  

  The company is in the process of adding Microsoft Endpoint Manager (Intune) to manage its mobile clients. The customer is maintaining the on-prem AD for now and uses Azure AD Connect to sync with Azure AD.

  # Requirements for issuing certificates to mobile clients

  The company wants to use ClearPass Onboard to deploy certificates automatically to mobile clients enrolled in Intune. During this process, Onboard should communicate with Azure AD to validate the clients. High availability should also be

  provided for this scenario; in other words, clients should be able to get certificates from Subscriber 2 if Subscriber 1 is down.

  The Intune admins intend to create certificate profiles that include a UPN SAN with the UPN of the user who enrolled the device.

  # Requirements for authenticating clients

  The customer requires all types of clients to connect and authenticate on the same corporate SSID.

  The company wants CPPM to use these authentication methods:

  1.

  EAP-TLS to authenticate users on mobile clients registered in Intune

  2.

  TEAR, with EAP-TLS as the inner method to authenticate Windows domain computers and the users on them To succeed, EAP-TLS (standalone or as a TEAP method) clients must meet these requirements:

  1.

  Their certificate is valid and is not revoked, as validated by OCSP

  2.

  The client's username matches an account in AD # Requirements for assigning clients to roles After authentication, the customer wants the CPPM to assign clients to ClearPass roles based on the following rules:

  1.

  Clients with certificates issued by Onboard are assigned the "mobile-onboarded" role

  2.

  Clients that have passed TEAP Method 1 are assigned the "domain-computer" role

  3.

  Clients in the AD group "Medical" are assigned the "medical-staff" role

  4.

  Clients in the AD group "Reception" are assigned to the "reception-staff" role The customer requires CPPM to assign authenticated clients to AOS firewall roles as follows:

  1.

  Assign medical staff on mobile-onboarded clients to the "medical-mobile" firewall role

  2.

  Assign other mobile-onboarded clients to the "mobile-other" firewall role

  3.

  Assign medical staff on domain computers to the "medical-domain" firewall role

  4.

  All reception staff on domain computers to the "reception-domain" firewall role

  5.

  All domain computers with no valid user logged in to the "computer-only" firewall role

  6.

  Deny other clients access # Other requirements Communications between ClearPass servers and on-prem AD domain controllers must be encrypted. # Network topology For the network infrastructure, this customer has Aruba APs and Aruba gateways, which are managed by Central. APs use tunneled WLANs, which tunnel traffic to the gateway cluster. The customer also has AOS-CX switches that are not

  managed by Central at this point.

  

  # ClearPass cluster IP addressing and hostnames

  A customer's ClearPass cluster has these IP addresses:

  1.

  Publisher = 10.47.47.5

  2.

  Subscriber 1 = 10.47.47.6

  3.

  Subscriber 2 = 10.47.47.7

  4.

  Virtual IP with Subscriber 1 and Subscriber 2 = 10.47.47.8

  The customer's DNS server has these entries

  1.

  cp.acnsxtest.com = 10.47.47.5

  2.

  cps1.acnsxtest.com = 10.47.47.6

  3.

  cps2.acnsxtest.com = 10.47.47.7

  4.

  radius.acnsxtest.com = 10.47.47.8

  5.

  onboard.acnsxtest.com = 10.47.47.8

  On CPPM, you are creating the authentication method shown in the exhibit below:

  

  You will use the method for standalone EAP-TLS and for inner methods in TEAP. What should you do?

  A. Configure OCSP override and set the OCSP URL to localhost/onboard/mdps ocspphp/2

  B. Enable certificate comparison.

  C. Enable authorization.

  D. Configure OCSP override and leave the OCSP URL blank.

  Correct Answer: A

• Question 30:

  Refer to the exhibit.

  

  You have been given this certificate to install on a ClearPass server for the RADIUS/EAP and RadSec usages.

  What is one issue?

  A. The certificate has a wildcard in the subject common name.

  B. The certificate uses a fully qualified the '.local" domain name.

  C. The certificate does not have a URI subject alternative name

  D. The certificate does not have an IP subject alternative name

  Correct Answer: B

  The exhibit shows a screenshot of a certificate that has the following information: The subject common name (CN) is *.clearpass.local, which is a wildcard domain name that matches any subdomain under clearpass.local. The subject alternative names (SANs) are DNS Name=clearpass.local and DNS Name=*.clearpass.local, which are the same as the subject CN. The issuer CN is clearpass.local, which is the same as the subject domain name. The key usage (KU) is Digital Signature and Key Encipherment, which are required for RADIUS/EAP and RadSec usages. The extended key usage (EKU) is Server Authentication and Client Authentication, which are also required for RADIUS/EAP and RadSec usages. The issue with this certificate is that it uses a fully qualified the `.local' domain name, which is a reserved domain name for local networks that cannot be registered on the public Internet. This means that the certificate cannot be verified by any public certificate authority (CA), and therefore cannot be trusted by any external devices or servers that communicate with ClearPass. This could cause problems for RADIUS/EAP and RadSec usages, as they rely on secure and authenticated connections between ClearPass and other devices or servers. To avoid this issue, the certificate should use a valid domain name that can be registered on the public Internet, such as clearpass.com or clearpass.net. This way, the certificate can be issued by a public CA that is trusted by most devices and servers, and can be verified by them. Alternatively, if the certificate is intended to be used only within a private network, it should be issued by a private CA that is trusted by all devices and servers within that network.