CompTIA CompTIA Certifications N10-009 Questions & Answers

• Question 1:

  A technician is troubleshooting servers with high CPU usage. While trying to connect, the technician needs to open a port for remote access. Which of the following ports should the technician open?

  A. 443

  B. 3321

  C. 8080

  D. 5900

  Correct Answer: D

  Port 5900 is the default port used by Virtual Network Computing (VNC), a graphical desktop-sharing system that allows remote access to another computer's screen, keyboard and mouse1. VNC is one of the tools that can be used for remote troubleshooting of servers with high CPU usage, as it enables the technician to see the server's desktop and perform actions on it. Port 5900 is also one of the ports listed in the CompTIA Network+ N10-008 exam objectives under the section "1.4 Given a scenario, use appropriate software tools to troubleshoot connectivity issues"2. The other ports are not commonly used for remote access. Port 443 is used for Hypertext Transfer Protocol Secure (HTTPS), a secure version of HTTP that encrypts the communication between a web browser and a web server3. Port 3321 is used for Telepathy Broker Service, a service that provides communication between applications and telephony devices4. Port 8080 is used for HTTP Alternate, an alternative port for HTTP that is often used by web servers for testing or proxy purposes5. References

  1: Port 5900: What Is It Used for and How to Open It for RDP

  2: Network+ (Plus) Certification | CompTIA IT Certifications

  3: [What is HTTPS? - Definition from WhatIs.com]

  4: [Telepathy Broker Service - Port 3321 - TCP/UDP]

  5: [What is Port 8080? Why do some processes use this port?]

• Question 2:

  An online gaming company needs a cloud solution that will allow for more virtual resources to be deployed when tournaments are held. The number of users who access the service increases during tournaments. The company also needs the resources to return to baseline levels once the resources are not needed in order to reduce cost. Which of the following cloud concepts would provide the best solution?

  A. Scalability

  B. Hybrid

  C. Multitenancy

  D. Elasticity

  Correct Answer: D

  References

  1: Understand cloud concepts | Microsoft Press Store

  2: What Is Hybrid Cloud? - Cisco

  3: Difference between Elasticity and Scalability in Cloud Computing

  4: Scalability and Elasticity in Cloud Computing - GeeksforGeeks

• Question 3:

  An administrator wants to host services on the internet using an internal server. The server is configured with an RFC1918 address, and the administrator wants to make the services that are hosted on the server available on one of the company's public IP addresses. Which of the following should the administrator configure to allow this access?

  A. IPv6 tunneling

  B. Virtual IP

  C. Dual stack

  D. EUI-64

  Correct Answer: B

  References

  What is a Virtual IP Address (VIP)? - Definition from Techopedia IPv6 Tunneling - an overview | ScienceDirect Topics Dual Stack Definition [EUI-64 - an overview | ScienceDirect Topics]

• Question 4:

  Which of the following most likely determines the size of a rack for installation? (Select two).

  A. KVM size

  B. Switch depth

  C. Hard drive size

  D. Cooling fan speed

  E. Outlet amperage

  F. Server height

  Correct Answer: BF

  The size of a rack for installation depends on several factors, such as the available space, the power and cooling requirements, and the dimensions of the equipment to be installed. Two of the most important dimensions to consider are the switch depth and the server height. Switch depth refers to the length of the switch from front to back, which determines how much space is needed inside the rack. Server height refers to the vertical space occupied by the server, which is measured in rack units (RU) or U. One rack unit is equal to 1.75 inches. The height of the rack should be able to accommodate the total number of rack units needed for the servers and other devices, as well as some extra space for cable management and airflow. References: CompTIA Network+ N10-008 Cert Guide, Chapter 2, Section 2.5

• Question 5:

  A company realizes that only half of its employees work in the office, and the employees who work from home no longer need a computer at the office. Which of the following security measures should the network administrator implement when removing a computer from a cubicle?

  A. Disable DHCP on the computer being removed.

  B. Place the switch port in a private VLAN.

  C. Apply a firewall rule to block the computer's IP address.

  D. Remove the employee's network access.

  Correct Answer: D

  References

  1: CompTIA Network+ N10-008 Cert Guide - O'Reilly Media

  2: Network+ (Plus) Certification | CompTIA IT Certifications

  3: 10 Ways to Secure Office Workstations - Computer Security

• Question 6:

  A network administrator received complaints of intermittent network connectivity issues. The administrator investigates and finds that the network design contains potential loop scenarios. Which of the following should the administrator do?

  A. Enable spanning tree.

  B. Configure port security.

  C. Change switch port speed limits.

  D. Enforce 802. IQ tagging.

  Correct Answer: A

  Spanning tree is a protocol that prevents network loops by dynamically disabling or enabling switch ports based on the network topology. Network loops can cause intermittent connectivity issues, such as broadcast storms, MAC address

  table instability, and multiple frame transmission. By enabling spanning tree, the network administrator can ensure that there is only one active path between any two network devices at any given time.

  References:

  CompTIA Network+ N10-008 Certification Exam Objectives, page 91 CompTIA Network+ Cert Guide: Switching and Virtual LANs, page 172

• Question 7:

  A network administrator is preparing new switches that will be deployed to support a network extension project. The lead network engineer has already provided documentation to ensure the switches are set up properly. Which of the following did the engineer most likely provide?

  A. Physical network diagram

  B. Site survey reports

  C. Baseline configurations

  D. Logical network diagram

  Correct Answer: D

• Question 8:

  Which of the following combinations of single cables and transceivers will allow a server to have 40GB of network throughput? (Select two).

  A. SFP+

  B. SFP

  C. QSFP+

  D. Multimode

  E. Cat 6a

  F. Cat5e

  Correct Answer: CD

  QSFP+ is a type of transceiver that supports 40 gigabit Ethernet (40GbE) over four lanes of 10 gigabit Ethernet (10GbE) each. QSFP+ stands for quad small form-factor pluggable plus, and it is a compact and hot-swappable module that plugs into a QSFP+ port on a network device. QSFP+ transceivers can support various types of cables and connectors, such as direct attach copper (DAC), active optical cable (AOC), or fiber optic cable. Multimode is a type of fiber optic cable that supports multiple modes of light propagation within the core. Multimode fiber optic cable can carry higher bandwidth and data rates than single-mode fiber optic cable, but over shorter distances. Multimode fiber optic cable is commonly used for short-reach applications, such as within a data center or a campus network. Multimode fiber optic cable can be paired with QSFP+ transceivers to achieve 40GbE connectivity. The other options are not correct because they do not support 40GbE. They are: SFP+. SFP+ is a type of transceiver that supports 10 gigabit Ethernet (10GbE) over a single lane. SFP+ stands for small form-factor pluggable plus, and it is a compact and hot-swappable module that plugs into an SFP+ port on a network device. SFP+ transceivers can support various types of cables and connectors, such as direct attach copper (DAC), active optical cable (AOC), or fiber optic cable. However, SFP+ transceivers cannot support 40GbE by themselves, unless they are used in a breakout configuration with a QSFP+ transceiver. SFP. SFP is a type of transceiver that supports 1 gigabit Ethernet (1GbE) over a single lane. SFP stands for small form-factor pluggable, and it is a compact and hot-swappable module that plugs into an SFP port on a network device. SFP transceivers can support various types of cables and connectors, such as twisted- pair copper, coaxial cable, or fiber optic cable. However, SFP transceivers cannot support 40GbE by themselves, unless they are used in a breakout configuration with a QSFP+ transceiver. Cat 6a. Cat 6a is a type of twisted-pair copper cable that supports 10 gigabit Ethernet (10GbE) over distances up to 100 meters. Cat 6a stands for category 6 augmented, and it is an enhanced version of Cat 6 cable that offers better performance and reduced crosstalk. Cat 6a cable can be paired with 10Gbase-T transceivers to achieve 10GbE connectivity. However, Cat 6a cable cannot support 40GbE by itself, unless it is used in a breakout configuration with a QSFP+ transceiver. Cat 5e. Cat 5e is a type of twisted-pair copper cable that supports 1 gigabit Ethernet (1GbE) over distances up to 100 meters. Cat 5e stands for category 5 enhanced, and it is an improved version of Cat 5 cable that offers better performance and reduced crosstalk. Cat 5e cable can be paired with 1000base-T transceivers to achieve 1GbE connectivity. However, Cat 5e cable cannot support 40GbE by itself, unless it is used in a breakout configuration with a QSFP+ transceiver. References1: QSFP+ - an overview | ScienceDirect Topics2: Multimode Fiber - an overview | ScienceDirect Topics3: Network+ (Plus) Certification | CompTIA IT Certifications4: SFP+ - an overview | ScienceDirect Topics5: SFP - an overview | ScienceDirect Topics6: Cat 6a - an overview | ScienceDirect Topics7: [Cat 5e - an overview | ScienceDirect Topics]

• Question 9:

  Which of the following authentication methods requires a user to enter a password and scan a fingerprint?

  A. Single sign-on

  B. Kerberos

  C. Multifactor

  D. Network access control

  Correct Answer: C

  Multifactor authentication is a method of verifying a user's identity by requiring more than one factor, such as something the user knows, something the user has, or something the user is. A password is something the user knows, and a fingerprint is something the user is. Therefore, a user who needs to enter a password and scan a fingerprint is using multifactor authentication.

• Question 10:

  A technician just validated a theory that resolved a network outage. The technician then verified that all users could access resources. Which of the following is the next step the technician should take in the network troubleshooting methodology?

  A. Verify the services are restored.

  B. Test a new theory.

  C. Write the lessons learned.

  D. Identify where the network outage is occurring.

  Correct Answer: C

  The network troubleshooting methodology is a systematic process of identifying and resolving network problems. It consists of eight steps:

  1.

  Identify the problem.

  2.

  Establish a theory of probable cause.

  3.

  Test the theory to determine the cause.

  4.

  Establish a plan of action to resolve the problem and identify potential effects.

  5.

  Implement the solution or escalate as necessary.

  6.

  Verify full system functionality and, if applicable, implement preventive measures.

  7.

  Document findings, actions, and outcomes.

  8.

  Write the lessons learned. The last step, writing the lessons learned, is important for improving the network troubleshooting skills and knowledge. It involves reviewing the entire troubleshooting process, analyzing the root cause of the problem, evaluating the effectiveness of the solution, and identifying any best practices, tips, or tools that can be used for future reference. Writing the lessons learned can also help to update the network documentation, policies, and procedures, and share the experience and feedback with other network professionals