A web consultancy group currently works in an isolated development environment. The group uses this environment for the creation of the final solution, but also for showcasing it to customers, before commissioning the sites in production. Recently, customers of newly commissioned sites have reported they are not receiving the final product shown by the group, and the website is performing in unexpected ways. Which of the following additional environments should the group adopt and include in its process?
A. Provide each web consultant a local environment on their device.
B. Require each customer to have a blue-green environment.
C. Leverage a staging environment that is tightly controlled for showcasing.
D. Initiate a disaster recovery environment to fail to in the event of reported issues.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: A staging environment is a type of development environment that is used to test and demonstrate the final product before deploying it to the production environment. A staging environment can help the web consultancy group avoid the issues of delivering a different or faulty product to the customers, as it can ensure that the product is fully functional, compatible, and secure. A staging environment can also help the group showcase the product to the customers in a realistic and controlled way, as it can mimic the production environment and avoid any interference from other development activities. A staging environment can be leveraged by using cloud services that allow for easy provisioning, scaling, and deployment of web applications
Question 382:
An organization deployed an application using a cloud provider's internal managed certificates. Developers are unable to retrieve data when calling the API from any machine.
Which of the following is the most likely cause of the error?
A. TLS version
B. Insecure cipher
C. Self-signed certificate
D. Root trust
Correct Answer: D
The error message indicates that the SSL/TLS handshake failed due to an invalid certificate. This means that the client machine does not trust the certificate authority (CA) that issued the certificate for the cloud provider's API. A self-signed certificate or an insecure cipher would not cause this error, as they would be detected during the certificate validation process. The TLS version is not relevant, as the error occurs before the protocol negotiation. The most likely cause of the error is that the client machine does not have the root CA certificate installed in its trust store, or that the cloud provider's certificate chain is incomplete or broken. To fix the error, the client machine needs to install the root CA certificate or the cloud provider needs to fix its certificate chain. References: The Official CompTIA Cloud+ Self-Paced Study Guide (CV0-003) eBook, Chapter 6, Section 6.2, page
Question 383:
A cloud administrator created a developer desktop image and added it to the VDI farm in a private cloud environment. One of the developers opened a VDI session and noticed that compiling the code was taking up to one hour to complete. However, when the developer compiles the code on a local machine, the job completes in less than five minutes. Which of the following sizing techniques would be best to use to improve the performance of the compile job?
A. Add more servers to the VDI environment.
B. Increase the CPU and the memory on the VDI template.
C. Configure the VDI environment to increase sessions automatically.
D. Migrate code compile jobs to a public cloud provider.
Correct Answer: B
The most likely cause of the poor performance of the compile job is that the VDI template does not have enough CPU and memory resources to handle the task efficiently. Compiling code is a CPU-intensive and memory-intensive process that requires sufficient computing power to run smoothly. By increasing the CPU and memory on the VDI template, the cloud administrator can improve the performance of the compile job and reduce the time it takes to complete. Adding more servers to the VDI environment or configuring the VDI environment to increase sessions automatically would not help, as they would only affect the scalability and availability of the VDI farm, not the performance of individual sessions. Migrating code compile jobs to a public cloud provider would incur additional costs and complexity, and may not be feasible or desirable for the organization. References: The Official CompTIA Cloud+ Self-Paced Study Guide (CV0- 003) eBook, Chapter 3, Section 3.3, page 971
Question 384:
A systems administrator is deploying a new version of a website. The website is deployed in the cloud using a VM cluster. The administrator must then deploy the new version into one VM first. After a period of time, if there are no issues detected, a second VM will be updated. This process must continue until all the VMS are updated. Which of the following upgrade methods is being implemented?
A. Canary
B. Blue-green
C. Rolling
D. Staging
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: The upgrade method that is being implemented by the systems administrator is rolling. A rolling upgrade is a type of upgrade that applies the new version of a software or service to a subset of nodes or instances at a time, while the rest of the nodes or instances continue to run the old version. This way, the upgrade can be performed gradually and incrementally, without causing downtime or disruption to the entire system. A rolling upgrade can also help to monitor and test the new version for any issues or errors, and roll back to the old version if needed12. A canary upgrade is a type of upgrade that applies the new version of a software or service to a small and selected group of users or customers, before rolling it out to the rest of the population. This way, the upgrade can be evaluated for its performance, functionality, and feedback, and any problems or bugs can be fixed before affecting the majority of users or customers34. A blue-green upgrade is a type of upgrade that involves having two identical environments, one running the old version (blue) and one running the new version (green) of a software or service. The traffic is switched from the blue environment to the green environment once the new version is ready and tested. This way, the upgrade can be performed quickly and seamlessly, without any downtime or risk of failure. The blue environment can also serve as a backup in case of any issues with the green environment5 . A staging upgrade is a type of upgrade that involves having a separate environment that mimics the production environment, where the new version of a software or service is deployed and tested before moving it to the production environment. This way, the upgrade can be verified and validated for its compatibility, security, and quality, and any defects or errors can be resolved before affecting the live system .
Question 385:
As a result of an IT audit, a customer has decided to move some applications from an old legacy system to a private cloud. The current server location is remote with low bandwidth. Which of the following is the best migration strategy to use for this deployment?
A. P2V with physical data transport
B. P2P with remote data copy
C. V2V with physical data transport
D. V2P with physical data transport
E. V2P with remote data copy
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: P2V stands for physical to virtual, which is the process of converting a physical server into a virtual machine. This is a common migration strategy for moving legacy systems to the cloud, as it preserves the existing configuration and data of the server. Physical data transport means using a physical device, such as a hard disk drive or a USB flash drive, to transfer the data from the source location to the destination location. This method is suitable for remote locations with low bandwidth, as it avoids the network latency and congestion that may occur with remote data copy. P2P, V2V, and V2P are other types of migration strategies, but they are not applicable for this scenario. P2P stands for physical to physical, which is the process of moving a physical server to another physical server. V2V stands for virtual to virtual, which is the process of moving a virtual machine to another virtual machine. V2P stands for virtual to physical, which is the process of converting a virtual machine into a physical server. Remote data copy means using a network connection, such as FTP or SCP, to transfer the data from the source location to the destination location. This method is suitable for locations with high bandwidth and reliable network connectivity. References: CompTIA Cloud+ CV0-003 Certification Study Guide, Chapter 21, Cloud Migration, page 3371.
Question 386:
A systems administrator is trying to connect to a remote KVM host. The command line appears as follows:
After logging in to the remote server, the administrator verifies the daemon is running. Which of the following should the administrator try NEXT?
A. Opening port 22 on the firewall
B. Running the command with elevated privileges
C. Checking if the SSH password is correct
D. Ensuring the private key was properly imported
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: The answer is B. Running the command with elevated privileges. According to the web search results, the error message "End of file while reading data: sh: 1: nc: not found: Input/output error" indicates that the remote host does not have the nc (netcat) command installed or available in the PATH12. The nc command is used by libvirt to establish a connection between the client and the server. To fix this error, the administrator should install nc on the remote host or ensure that it is in the PATH. However, to do this, the administrator needs to have elevated privileges, such as sudo or root, on the remote host. Therefore, the administrator should try running the command with elevated privileges, such as sudo virsh remotehost or su -c `virsh remotehost'. This will allow the administrator to install nc or modify the PATH on the remote host and then connect to it using libvirt.
Question 387:
A cloud engineer is deploying a server in a cloud platform. The engineer reviews a security scan report. Which of the following recommended services should be disabled? (Select two).
A. Telnet
B. FTP
C. Remote log-in
D. DNS
E. DHCP
F. LDAP
Correct Answer: AB
Explanation: Telnet and FTP are recommended services to be disabled when deploying a server in a cloud platform, as they are insecure protocols that transmit data in plain text and expose credentials and sensitive information to potential attackers12. Remote log-in, DNS, DHCP, and LDAP are not necessarily recommended to be disabled, as they may provide useful functionality for the server and the cloud environment. However, they should be configured properly and secured with encryption, authentication, and authorization mechanisms34. References: CompTIA Cloud+ CV0-003 Exam Objectives, Objective 4.2: Given a scenario, apply security configurations and compliance controls ; CompTIA Quick Start Guide to Tackling Cloud Security Concerns3
Question 388:
A systems administrator is attempting to gather information about services and resource utilization on VMs in a cloud environment. Which of the following will best accomplish this objective?
A. Syslog
B. SNMP
C. CMDB
D. Service management
E. Performance monitoring
Correct Answer: E
Explanation: Performance monitoring is a technique that collects and analyzes data about the services and resource utilization on VMs in a cloud environment. Performance monitoring can help the systems administrator to gather information about the CPU, memory, disk, network, and application performance of the VMs, as well as identify any bottlenecks, errors, or anomalies that may affect the cloud service quality. Performance monitoring can be implemented using various tools or agents that can collect and report the performance metrics from the VMs to a centralized dashboard or console. Performance monitoring can also help the systems administrator to optimize, troubleshoot, and plan the cloud resources and services. References: CompTIA Cloud+ CV0-003 Certification Study Guide, Chapter 5, Objective 5.1: Given a scenario, monitor cloud resources and services.
Question 389:
A cloud engineer is responsible for a legacy web application that runs on an on-premises VM environment. The VM environment is approaching end of life. The engineer needs to migrate the web application to the cloud as quickly as possible
because the VM environment has the following limitations:
The VM environment has a single IOGB disk.
The VM environment still uses 10Mbps, which leaves a 100Mbps WAN connection underutilized.
No installation media is available.
Which of the following is the best way to migrate the web application to the cloud?
A. Use the VM import connector to import the VM into the cloud.
B. Use import/export to import the VM as a snapshot and attach it to a cloud instance.
C. Use REST APIs to import an image of the VM into the cloud.
D. Use object storage to create a backup of the VM and restore data into the cloud instance.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: A VM import connector is a tool that allows you to import virtual machines from your on-premises environment into the cloud using a graphical user interface. This is the fastest and easiest way to migrate a legacy web application without requiring installation media or changing the configuration of the VM. The VM import connector can also handle the disk size and network bandwidth limitations of the on-premises VM environment. References: EC2 VM Import Connector | AWS News Blog, Import a VMware Virtual Machine to Oracle Cloud Infrastructure, CompTIA Cloud+ Certification Exam Objectives, Domain 2.0: Deployment, Objective 2.1: Given a scenario, execute and implement solutions using appropriate cloud migration tools and methods.
Question 390:
A cloud administrator is troubleshooting an issue regarding users at one location who are reporting that their API access tokens have become invalid. The users are issued tokens based on their credentials in a federated cluster. Which of the following should the administrator check to determine the cause of this issue?
A. SAML
B. DNS
C. SSL
D. NTP
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: The answer is A. SAML. SAML (Security Assertion Markup Language) is a standard for exchanging authentication and authorization data between different parties, such as a user and a service provider. In a federated cluster,
SAML can be used to enable single sign-on (SSO) for users across multiple clusters or cloud providers. SAML relies on the exchange of XML-based assertions that contain information about the user's identity, attributes, and entitlements. If
the users' API access tokens have become invalid, it could be because the SAML assertions have expired, been revoked, or corrupted. The administrator should check the SAML configuration and logs to determine the cause of this issue.
Some possible sources of information about SAML and federated clusters are:
Authenticating | Kubernetes: This page provides an overview of authenticating users in Kubernetes, including using SAML for federated identity. Authenticating to the Kubernetes API server - Google Cloud: This page explains how to
authenticate to the Kubernetes API server on Google Cloud, including using SAML for federated identity with Google Cloud Identity Platform. Error 403 User not authorized when trying to access Azure Databricks API through Active Directory
- Stack Overflow: This page discusses a similar issue of users getting an error when trying to access Azure Databricks API using SAML and Active Directory.
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