CompTIA CompTIA Certifications CV0-003 Questions & Answers

• Question 391:

  A cloud engineer needs to perform a database migration_ The database has a restricted SLA and cannot be offline for more than ten minutes per month The database stores 800GB of data, and the network bandwidth to the CSP is 100MBps. Which of the following is the BEST option to perform the migration?

  A. Copy the database to an external device and ship the device to the CSP

  B. Create a replica database, synchronize the data, and switch to the new instance.

  C. Utilize a third-patty tool to back up and restore the data to the new database

  D. use the database import/export method and copy the exported file.

  Correct Answer: B

  Explanation: The correct answer is B. Create a replica database, synchronize the data, and switch to the new instance. This option is the best option to perform the migration because it can minimize the downtime and data loss during the migration process. A replica database is a copy of the source database that is kept in sync with the changes made to the original database. By creating a replica database in the cloud, the cloud engineer can transfer the data incrementally and asynchronously, without affecting the availability and performance of the source database. When the replica database is fully synchronized with the source database, the cloud engineer can switch to the new instance by updating the connection settings and redirecting the traffic. This can reduce the downtime to a few minutes or seconds, depending on the complexity of the switch. Some of the tools and services that can help create a replica database and synchronize the data are AWS Database Migration Service (AWS DMS) 1, Azure Database Migration Service 2, and Striim 3. These tools and services can support various source and target databases, such as Oracle, MySQL, PostgreSQL, SQL Server, MongoDB, etc. They can also provide features such as schema conversion, data validation, monitoring, and security. The other options are not the best options to perform the migration because they can cause more downtime and data loss than the replica database option. Copying the database to an external device and shipping the device to the CSP is a slow and risky option that can take days or weeks to complete. It also exposes the data to physical damage or theft during transit. Moreover, this option does not account for the changes made to the source database after copying it to the device, which can result in data inconsistency and loss. Utilizing a third-party tool to back up and restore the data to the new database is a faster option than shipping a device, but it still requires a significant amount of downtime and bandwidth. The source database has to be offline or in read-only mode during the backup process, which can take hours or days depending on the size of the data and the network speed. The restore process also requires downtime and bandwidth, as well as compatibility checks and configuration adjustments. Additionally, this option does not account for the changes made to the source database after backing it up, which can result in data inconsistency and loss. Using the database import/ export method and copying the exported file is a similar option to using a third-party tool, but it relies on native database features rather than external tools. The import/export method involves exporting the data from the source database into a file format that can be imported into the target database. The file has to be copied over to the target database and then imported into it. This option also requires downtime and bandwidth during both export and import processes, as well as compatibility checks and configuration adjustments. Furthermore, this option does not account for the changes made to the source database after exporting it, which can result in data inconsistency and loss.

• Question 392:

  A web consultancy group currently works in an isolated development environment. The group uses this environment for the creation of the final solution, but also for showcasing it to customers, before commissioning the sites in production. Recently, customers of newly commissioned sites have reported they are not receiving the final product shown by the group, and the website is performing in unexpected ways. Which of the following additional environments should the group adopt and include in its process?

  A. Provide each web consultant a local environment on their device.

  B. Require each customer to have a blue-green environment.

  C. Leverage a staging environment that is tightly controlled for showcasing

  D. Initiate a disaster recovery environment to fail to in the event of reported issues.

  Correct Answer: C

  The answer is C. Leverage a staging environment that is tightly controlled for showcasing. A staging environment is a replica of the production environment that is used for testing and demonstrating the final product before deployment. A staging environment can help the web consultancy group avoid the issues reported by the customers, such as mismatched expectations and unexpected behavior, by ensuring that the product is shown in a realistic and consistent setting. A staging environment can also help the group catch and fix any bugs or errors before they affect the live site. Some possible sources of information about web development environments are: 7 Web Development Best Practices: This page provides some general tips and best practices for web development, such as planning, accessibility, UX/UI, standards, code quality, compatibility, and security. Web Development Best Practices (Building Real-World Cloud Apps with Azure): This page explains some specific best practices for web development in the cloud environment, such as stateless web tier, session state management, CDN caching, and async programming. Web Development Best Practices: This page lists some resources for learning web development best practices in ASP.NET, such as async and await, building real- world cloud apps with Azure, and hands-on labs.

• Question 393:

  A corporation is evaluating an offer from a CSP to take advantage of volume discounts on a shared platform. The finance department is concerned about cost allocation transparency, as the current structure splits projects into dedicated billing accounts. Which of the following can be used to address this concern?

  A. Implementing resource tagging

  B. Defining a cost baseline

  C. Consolidating the billing accounts

  D. Using a third-party accounting tool

  Correct Answer: A

  Resource tagging is a process of adding descriptive metadata (tags) to cloud resources, such as virtual machines, storage accounts, databases, etc. Tags can be used to track and allocate costs, identify resources by project, owner, environment, or any other criteria. Resource tagging can help the finance department to have cost allocation transparency across different projects on a shared platform. References: CompTIA Cloud+ Certification Exam Objectives, Domain

  4.0: Operations and Support, Objective 4.3: Given a scenario, apply the appropriate methods for cost control in a cloud environment. Cloud Resource Tagging | Cloud Foundation Community, Define your tagging strategy - Cloud Adoption Framework

• Question 394:

  After an infrastructure-as-code cloud migration to an laaS environment, the cloud engineer discovers that configurations on DB servers have drifted from the corporate standard baselines. Which of the following should the cloud engineer do to best ensure configurations are restored to the baselines?

  A. Utilize a template to automate and update the DB configuration.

  B. Create an image of the DB, delete the previous DB server, and restore from the image.

  C. Manually log in to the DB servers and update the configurations.

  D. Rename and change the IP of the old DB server and rebuild a new DB server.

  Correct Answer: A

  Explanation: A template is a file that defines the desired state and configuration of a cloud resource, such as a server, a network, or a database. Infrastructure as code (IaC) is the practice of using templates to automate and manage cloud resources, rather than manually configuring them. IaC can help prevent configuration drift, which is the deviation of the actual state of a resource from the desired state defined by the template. In this scenario, the cloud engineer discovers that configurations on DB servers have drifted from the corporate standard baselines after an IaC cloud migration to an IaaS environment. The best way to ensure configurations are restored to the baselines is to utilize a template to automate and update the DB configuration. This way, the cloud engineer can apply the same template to all the DB servers, and ensure they are consistent and compliant with the corporate standards. Creating an image of the DB, deleting the previous DB server, and restoring from the image is not a good solution, as it may cause data loss, downtime, and additional costs. Manually logging in to the DB servers and updating the configurations is not a good solution, as it is time-consuming, error-prone, and not scalable. Renaming and changing the IP of the old DB server and rebuilding a new DB server is not a good solution, as it may cause compatibility issues, network disruptions, and security risks. References: CompTIA Cloud+ CV0-003 Certification Study Guide, Chapter 23, Infrastructure as Code and Configuration Management, page 3691.

• Question 395:

  An IT professional is selecting the appropriate cloud storage solution for an application that has the following requirements:

  The owner of the objects should be the object writer. The storage system must enforce TLS encryption.

  Which of the following should the IT professional configure?

  A. A bucket

  B. A CIFS endpoint

  C. A SAN

  D. An NFS mount

  Correct Answer: A

  A bucket Comprehensive Explanation: A bucket is a cloud storage solution that allows users to store and access objects, such as files, images, videos, etc. A bucket is typically associated with object storage services, such as Amazon S3,

  Google Cloud Storage, or Microsoft Azure Blob Storage123. A bucket has the following characteristics that match the requirements of the application:

  The owner of the objects is the object writer. This means that the user who uploads or writes an object to the bucket becomes the owner of that object and can control its access permissions456. The storage system enforces TLS encryption.

  This means that the data in transit between the client and the bucket is encrypted using the Transport Layer Security (TLS) protocol, which provides security and privacy for the communication . A CIFS endpoint, a SAN, and an NFS mount

  are not cloud storage solutions, but rather network protocols or architectures that enable access to storage devices

• Question 396:

  A cloud engineer recently set up a container image repository. The engineer wants to ensure that downloaded images are not modified in transit. Which of the following is the best method to achieve this goal?

  A. SHA-256

  B. IPSec

  C. AES-256

  D. MD5

  E. serpent-256

  Correct Answer: A

  SHA-256 is the best method to ensure that downloaded images are not modified in transit. SHA-256 is a type of cryptographic hash function that can generate a unique and fixed- length digest for any input data. The digest can be used to verify the integrity and authenticity of the data, as any modification or tampering of the data would result in a different digest. SHA-256 is more secure and reliable than MD5, which is an older and weaker hash function that has been proven to be vulnerable to collisions and attacks12. AES-256 and serpent-256 are types of encryption algorithms, not hash functions, and they are used to protect the confidentiality of the data, not the integrity. IPSec is a network security protocol that can use encryption and hashing to secure data in transit, but it is not a method by itself

• Question 397:

  A systems administrator notices the host filesystem is running out of storage space. Which of the following will best reduce the storage space on the system?

  A. Deduplication

  B. Compression

  C. Adaptive optimization

  D. Thin provisioning

  Correct Answer: A

  Explanation: Deduplication is a technique that reduces the storage space by eliminating duplicate data blocks and replacing them with pointers to the original data. Deduplication can help free up the host filesystem by removing redundant data and increasing the storage efficiency. Deduplication can be performed at the source or the target, and it can be applied at the file or block level. References: [CompTIA Cloud+ CV0-003 Certification Study Guide], Chapter 4, Objective

  4.3: Given a scenario, troubleshoot common storage issues.

• Question 398:

  A company plans to publish a new application and must conform with security standards. Which of the following types of testing are most important for the systems administrator to run to assure the security and compliance of the application before publishing? (Select two).

  A. Regression testing

  B. Vulnerability testing

  C. Usability testing

  D. Functional testing

  E. Penetration testing

  F. Load testing

  Correct Answer: BE

  Explanation: Vulnerability testing and penetration testing are two types of security testing that can help to identify and mitigate potential risks in an application before publishing. Vulnerability testing is the process of scanning the application for known weaknesses or flaws that could be exploited by attackers. Penetration testing is the process of simulating real-world attacks on the application to test its defenses and find vulnerabilities that may not be detected by automated scans. Both types of testing can help to assure the security and compliance of the application by revealing and resolving any issues that could compromise the confidentiality, integrity, or availability of the application or its data. References: CompTIA Cloud+ CV0-003 Study Guide, Chapter 5: Maintaining a Cloud Environment, page 221.

• Question 399:

  A cloud administrator created four VLANs to autoscale the container environment. Two of the VLANs are on premises, while two VLANs are on a public cloud provider with a direct link between them. Firewalls are between the links with an additional subnet for communication, which is 192.168.5.0/24.

  The on-premises gateways are:

  192.168.1.1/24 192.168.2.1/24

  The cloud gateways are:

  192.168.3.1/24 192.168.4.1/24

  The orchestrator is unable to communicate with the cloud subnets. Which Of the following should the administrator do to resolve the issue?

  A. Allow firewall traffic to 192.168.5.0/24.

  B. Set both firewall interfaces to 192.168.5.1/24.

  C. Add interface 192.168.3.1/24 on the local firewall.

  D. Add interface 192.168.1.1/24 on the cloud firewall.

  Correct Answer: A

  Explanation: To allow communication between the on-premises and cloud subnets, the firewall traffic should be allowed to pass through the additional subnet for communication, which is 192.168.5.0/24. This subnet acts as a bridge between the two networks and should have firewall rules that permit traffic from and to both sides. References: [CompTIA Cloud+ Study Guide], page 181.

• Question 400:

  A cloud engineer needs to perform a database migration. The database has a restricted SLA and cannot be offline for more than ten minutes per month. The database stores 800GB of data, and the network bandwidth to the CSP is 100MBps.

  Which of the following is the best option to perform the migration?

  A. Copy the database to an external device and ship the device to the CSP.

  B. Create a replica database, synchronize the data, and switch to the new instance.

  C. Utilize a third-party tool to back up and restore the data to the new database.

  D. Use the database import/export method and copy the exported file.

  Correct Answer: B

  The best option to perform the database migration is to create a replica database, synchronize the data, and switch to the new instance. This option can help meet the restricted SLA and avoid offline time for the database. Creating a replica database can help copy the data from the source to the destination without interrupting the database operations. Synchronizing the data can help ensure that the replica database is updated with any changes that occur in the source database during the migration process. Switching to the new instance can help complete the migration and activate the new database in the cloud. This option can also help avoid the network bandwidth limitation and the large size of the data. References: CompTIA Cloud+ CV0-003 Certification Study Guide, Chapter 7, Objective 7.1: Given a scenario, migrate applications and data to the cloud.