CompTIA CompTIA Certifications N10-009 Questions & Answers

• Question 161:

  Which of the following ports is used for secure email?

  A. 25

  B. 110

  C. 143

  D. 587

  Correct Answer: D

  Port 587 is used for secure email submission. This port is designated for message submission by mail clients to mail servers using the SMTP protocol, typically with STARTTLS for encryption. Port 25: Traditionally used for SMTP relay, but

  not secure and often blocked by ISPs for outgoing mail due to spam concerns. Port 110: Used for POP3 (Post Office Protocol version 3), not typically secured. Port 143: Used for IMAP (Internet Message Access Protocol), which can be

  secured with STARTTLS or SSL/TLS. Port 587: Specifically used for authenticated email submission (SMTP) with encryption, ensuring secure transmission of email from clients to servers.

  Network References:

  CompTIA Network+ N10-007 Official Certification Guide: Discusses email protocols and ports, including secure email transmission. Cisco Networking Academy: Provides training on securing email communications and the use of appropriate

  ports.

  Network+ Certification All-in-One uide: Explains email protocols, ports, and security considerations for email transmission.

• Question 162:

  A network administrator needs to divide 192.168.1.0/24 into two equal halves. Which of the following subnet masks should the administrator use?

  A. 255.255.0.0

  B. 255.255.254.0

  C. 255.255.255.0

  D. 255.255.255.128

  Correct Answer: D

  Understanding Subnetting:

  uk.co.certification.simulator.questionpool.PList@37532e05 Calculating Subnet Mask:

  Verification:

  Comparison with Other Options:

  References:

  CompTIA Network+ study materials on subnetting and IP addressing.

• Question 163:

  After running a Cat 8 cable using passthrough plugs, an electrician notices that connected cables are experiencing a lot of cross talk. Which of the following troubleshooting steps should the electrician take first?

  A. Inspect the connectors for any wires that are touching or exposed.

  B. Restore default settings on the connected devices.

  C. Terminate the connections again.

  D. Check for radio frequency interference in the area.

  Correct Answer: A

  Cross talk can often be caused by improper termination of cables. The first step in troubleshooting should be to inspect the connectors for any wires that might be touching or exposed. Ensuring that all wires are correctly seated and that no conductors are exposed can help reduce or eliminate cross talk. This step should be taken before attempting to re- terminate the connections or check for other sources of interference.References: CompTIA Network+ study materials.

• Question 164:

  A technician is planning an equipement installation into a rack in a data center that practices hot aisle/cold aise ventilation. Which of the following directions should the equipement exhaust face when installed in the rack?

  A. Sides

  B. Top

  C. Front

  D. Rear

  Correct Answer: D

  In a data center that practices hot aisle/cold aisle ventilation, equipment should be installed so that the exhaust faces the rear of the rack. This setup ensures that hot air is expelled into the hot aisle, maintaining proper airflow and cooling

  efficiency. Hot Aisle/Cold Aisle Configuration: Equipment intake should face the cold aisle where cool air is supplied, and exhaust should face the hot aisle where hot air is expelled. Cooling Efficiency: Proper orientation of equipment helps

  maintain an efficient cooling environment by segregating hot and cold air, preventing overheating and improving energy efficiency.

  Network References:

  CompTIA Network+ N10-007 Official Certification Guide: Discusses data center design principles, including hot aisle/cold aisle configurations. Cisco Data Center Design Guide: Provides best practices for data center layout and equipment

  installation.

  Network+ Certification All-in-One uide: Covers data center environmental controls and ventilation strategies.

• Question 165:

  Which of the following routing protocols uses an autonomous system number?

  A. IS-IS

  B. EIGRP

  C. OSPF

  D. BGP

  Correct Answer: D

  BGP (Border Gateway Protocol) uses an Autonomous System (AS) number for its operations. An AS is a collection of IP networks and routers under the control of a single organization that presents a common routing policy to the Internet. BGP is used to exchange routing information between different ASes on the Internet, making it the only protocol among the listed options that uses an AS number.References: CompTIA Network+ study materials and RFC 4271.

• Question 166:

  To reduce costs and increase mobility, a Chief Technology Officer (CTO) wants to adopt cloud services for the organization and its affiliates. To reduce the impact for users, the CTO wants key services to run from the on-site data center and enterprise services to run in the cloud. Which of the following deployment models is the best choice for the organization?

  A. Public

  B. Hybrid

  C. SaaS

  D. Private

  Correct Answer: B

  A hybrid cloud deployment model is the best choice for the CTO's requirements. It allows the organization to run key services from the on-site data center while leveraging the cloud for enterprise services. This approach provides flexibility, scalability, and cost savings, while also minimizing disruptions to users by keeping critical services local. The hybrid model integrates both private and public cloud environments, offering the benefits of both.References: CompTIA Network+ study materials and cloud computing principles.

• Question 167:

  A network administrator needs to connect two routers in a point-to-point configuration and conserve IP space. Which of the following subnets should the administrator use?

  A. 724

  B. /26

  C. /28

  D. /30

  Correct Answer: D

  Using a /30 subnet mask is the most efficient way to conserve IP space for a point-to-point connection between two routers. A /30 subnet provides four IP addresses, two of which can be assigned to the router interfaces, one for the network address, and one for the broadcast address. This makes it ideal for point-to-point links where only two usable IP addresses are needed.References: CompTIA Network+ study materials and subnetting principles.

• Question 168:

  A network administrator needs to add 255 useable IP addresses to the network. A /24 is currently in use. Which of the following prefixes would fulfill this need?

  A. /23

  B. /25

  C. /29

  D. /32

  Correct Answer: A

  A /23 subnet provides 512 total addresses, of which 510 are usable (subtracting 2 for network and broadcast addresses). This would satisfy the need for 255 additional addresses.

• Question 169:

  A network administrator is configuring access points for installation in a dense environment where coverage is often overlapping. Which of the following channel widths should the administrator choose to help minimize interference in the 2.4GHz spectrum?

  A. 11MHz

  B. 20MHz

  C. 40MHz

  D. 80MHz

  E. 160MHz

  Correct Answer: B

  Reference: CompTIA Network+ Certification Exam Objectives - Wireless Networks section.

• Question 170:

  A customer needs six usable IP addresses. Which of the following best meets this requirement?

  A. 255.255.255.128

  B. 255.255.255.192

  C. 255.255.255.224

  D. 255.255.255.240

  Correct Answer: D

  Reference: CompTIA Network+ Certification Exam Objectives - IP Addressing section.