CompTIA CompTIA Certifications CS0-003 Questions & Answers

• Question 371:

  A security analyst discovers the accounting department is hosting an accounts receivable form on a public document service. Anyone with the link can access it. Which of the following threats applies to this situation?

  A. Potential data loss to external users

  B. Loss of public/private key management

  C. Cloud-based authentication attack

  D. Identification and authentication failures

  Correct Answer: A

  Potential data loss to external users is a threat that applies to this situation, where the accounting department is hosting an accounts receivable form on a public document service. Anyone with the link can access it. Data loss is an event that results in the destruction, corruption, or unauthorized disclosure of sensitive or confidential data. Data loss can occur due to various reasons, such as human error, hardware failure, malware infection, or cyberattack. In this case, hosting an accounts receivable form on a public document service exposes the data to potential data loss to external users who may access it without authorization or maliciously modify or delete it .

• Question 372:

  During an audit, several customer order forms were found to contain inconsistencies between the actual price of an item and the amount charged to the customer. Further investigation narrowed the cause of the issue to manipulation of the public-facing web form used by customers to order products. Which of the following would be the best way to locate this issue?

  A. Reduce the session timeout threshold

  B. Deploy MFA for access to the web server.

  C. Implement input validation.

  D. Run a dynamic code analysis.

  Correct Answer: C

  During an audit, it was discovered that several customer order forms had inconsistencies between the actual price and the amount charged. Further investigation revealed that the root cause was manipulation of the public-facing web form.

  1.

  Reducing the session timeout threshold (A) would limit session duration but not address the form manipulation issue.

  2.

  Deploying MFA (B) enhances authentication security but does not prevent or detect form data manipulation.

  3.

  Implementing input validation (C) directly prevents malicious or incorrect data from being submitted through the web form by ensuring all inputs meet expected formats and criteria.

  4.

  Running dynamic code analysis (D) can identify vulnerabilities during runtime but is more complex and less immediate than input validation.

  Therefore, the most effective and immediate step to prevent and locate this issue is to implement input validation, ensuring data integrity and preventing manipulation at the source.

• Question 373:

  A Chief Information Security Officer (CISO) is concerned about new privacy regulations that apply to the company. The CISO has tasked a security analyst with finding the proper control functions to verify that a user's data is not altered without the user's consent. Which of the following would be an appropriate course of action?

  A. Automate the use of a hashing algorithm after verified users make changes to their data.

  B. Use encryption first and then hash the data at regular, defined times.

  C. Use a DLP product to monitor the data sets for unauthorized edits and changes.

  D. Replicate the data sets at regular intervals and continuously compare the copies for unauthorized changes.

  Correct Answer: A

  Automating the use of a hashing algorithm after verified users make changes to their data is an appropriate course of action to ve" Hashing is a technique that produces a unique and fixed-length value for a given input, such as a file or a message. Hashing can help to verify the data integrity by comparing the hash values of the original and modified data. If the hash values match, then the data has not been altered without the "lues differ, then the data may have been tampered with or corrupted .

• Question 374:

  A Chief Information Officer wants to implement a BYOD strategy for all company laptops and mobile phones. The Chief Information Security Officer is concerned with ensuring all devices are patched and running some sort of protection against malicious software. Which of the following existing technical controls should a security analyst recommend to best meet all the requirements?

  A. EDR

  B. Port security

  C. NAC

  D. Segmentation

  Correct Answer: A

  EDR stands for endpoint detection and response, which is a type of security solution that monitors and protects all devices that are connected to a network, such as laptops and mobile phones. EDR can help to ensure that all devices are

  patched and running some sort of protection against malicious software by providing continuous visibility, threat detection, incident response, and remediation capabilities. EDR can also help to enforce security policies and compliance

  requirements across all devices .

  https://www.crowdstrike.com/epp-101/what-is-endpoint-detection-and-response-edr/

• Question 375:

  A company creates digitally signed packages for its devices. Which of the following best describes the method by which the security packages are delivered to the company's customers?

  A. Antitamper mechanism

  B. SELinux

  C. Trusted firmware updates

  D. eFuse

  Correct Answer: C

  Trusted firmware updates are a method by which security package" customers. Trusted firmware updates are digitally signed packages that contain software updates or patches for devices, such as routers, switches, or firewalls. Trusted firmware updates can help to ensure the authenticity and integrity of the packages by verifying the digital signature of the sender and preventing unauthorized or malicious modifications to the packages . https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ ios-xml/ios/sec_usr_trustsec/configuration/xe-16/sec-usr-trustsec-xe-16-book/sec-trust-firm-upd.html

• Question 376:

  As a proactive threat-hunting technique, hunters must develop situational cases based on likely attack scenarios derived from the available threat intelligence information. After forming the basis of the scenario, which of the following may the threat hunter construct to establish a framework for threat assessment?

  A. Critical asset list

  B. Threat vector

  C. Attack profile

  D. Hypothesis

  Correct Answer: D

  A hypothesis is a statement that can be tested by threat hunters to establish a framework for threat assessment. A hypothesis is based on situational awareness and threat intelligence information, and describes a possible attack scenario that may affect the organization. A hypothesis can help to guide threat hunters in their investigation by providing a clear and specific question to ans" there any evidence of lateral" https://www.crowdstrike.com/blog/tech-center/threat-huntinghypothesisdevelopment/

• Question 377:

  During an incident response procedure, a security analyst acquired the needed evidence from the hard drive of a compromised machine. Which of the following actions should the analyst perform next to ensure the data integrity of the evidence?

  A. Generate hashes for each file from the hard drive.

  B. Create a chain of custody document.

  C. Determine a timeline of events using correct time synchronization.

  D. Keep the cloned hard drive in a safe place.

  Correct Answer: A

  Generating hashes for each file from the hard drive is the next action that the analyst should perform to ensure the data integrity of the evidence. Hashing is a technique that produces a unique and fixedlength value for a given input, such as a file or a message. Hashing can help to verify the data integrity of the evidence by comparing the hash values of the original and copied files. If the hash values match, then the evidence has not been altered or corrupted. If the hash values differ, then the evidence may have been tampered with or damaged .

• Question 378:

  A security analyst is monitoring a company's network traffic and finds ping requests going to accounting and human resources servers from a SQL server. Upon investigation, the analyst discovers a technician responded to potential network connectivity issues. Which of the following is the best way for the security analyst to respond?

  A. Report this activity as a false positive, as the activity is legitimate.

  B. Isolate the system and begin a forensic investigation to determine what was compromised.

  C. Recommend network segmentation to the management team as a way to secure the various environments.

  D. Implement host-based firewalls on all systems to prevent ping sweeps in the future.

  Correct Answer: A

  Reporting this activity as a false positive, as the activity is legitimate, is the best way for the security analyst to respond. A false positive is a condition in which harmless traffic is classified as a potential network attack by a security monitoring tool. Ping requests are a common network diagnostic tool that can be used to test network connectivity issues. The technician who responded to potential network connectivity issues was performing a legitimate task and did not pose any threat to the accounting and human resources servers . https://www.techopedia.com/definition39/memory-dump

• Question 379:

  Which of the following software assessment methods would be best for gathering data related to an application's availability during peak times?

  A. Security regression testing

  B. Stress testing

  C. Static analysis testing

  D. Dynamic analysis testing

  E. User acceptance testing

  Correct Answer: B

  Stress testing is a software assessment method that tests how an application performs under peak times or extreme workloads. Stress testing can help to identify any performance issues, bottlenecks, errors or crashes that may occur when an application faces high demand or concurrent users. Stress testing can also help to determine the maximum capacity and scalability of an application . https://www.techopedia.com/definition39/memory-dump

• Question 380:

  A security analyst discovers the company's website is vulnerable to cross-site scripting. Which of the following solutions will best remedy the vulnerability?

  A. Prepared statements

  B. Server-side input validation

  C. Client-side input encoding

  D. Disabled JavaScript filtering

  Correct Answer: B

  Server-side input validation is a solution that can prevent cross-site scripting (XSS) vulnerabilities by checking and filtering any user input that is sent to the server before rendering it on a web page. Server-side input validation can help to ensure that the user input conforms to the expected format, length and type, and does not contain any malicious characters or syntax that may alter the logic or behavior of the web page. Server-side input validation can also reject or sanitize any input that does not meet the validation criteria . https://portswigger.net/web-security/cross-site-scripting/preventing