CompTIA CompTIA Certifications CS0-003 Questions & Answers

• Question 31:

  A laptop that is company owned and managed is suspected to have malware. The company implemented centralized security logging. Which of the following log sources will confirm the malware infection?

  A. XDR logs

  B. Firewall logs

  C. IDS logs

  D. MFA logs

  Correct Answer: A

  XDR logs will confirm the malware infection because XDR is a system that collects and analyzes data from multiple sources, such as endpoints, networks, cloud applications, and email security, to detect and respond to advanced threats12. XDR can provide a comprehensive view of the attack chain and the context of the malware infection. Firewall logs, IDS logs, and MFA logs are not sufficient to confirm the malware infection, as they only provide partial or indirect information about the network traffic, intrusion attempts, or user authentication. References: Cybersecurity Analyst+ - CompTIA, XDR: definition and benefits for MSPs| WatchGuard Blog, Extended detection and response - Wikipedia

• Question 32:

  Which of the following best explains the importance of communicating with staff regarding the official public communication plan related to incidents impacting the organization?

  A. To establish what information is allowed to be released by designated employees

  B. To designate an external public relations firm to represent the organization

  C. To ensure that all news media outlets are informed at the same time

  D. To define how each employee will be contacted after an event occurs

  Correct Answer: A

  Communicating with staff about the official public communication plan is important to avoid unauthorized or inaccurate disclosure of information that could harm the organization's reputation, security, or legal obligations. It also helps to ensure consistency and clarity of the messages delivered to the public and other stakeholders. https://resources.sei.cmu.edu/asset_files/Handbook/2021_002_001_651819.pdf

• Question 33:

  Which of the following stakeholders are most likely to receive a vulnerability scan report? (Select two).

  A. Executive management

  B. Law enforcement

  C. Marketing

  D. Legal

  E. Product owner

  F. Systems admininstration

  Correct Answer: AF

  Executive management and systems administration are the most likely stakeholders to receive a vulnerability scan report because they are responsible for overseeing the security posture and remediation efforts of the organization. Law enforcement, marketing, legal, and product owner are less likely to be involved in the vulnerability management process or need access to the scan results. References: Cybersecurity Analyst+ - CompTIA, How To Write a Vulnerability Assessment Report | EC- Council, Driving Stakeholder Alignment in Vulnerability Management - LogicGate

• Question 34:

  The Chief Information Security Officer (CISO) of a large management firm has selected a cybersecurity framework that will help the organization demonstrate its investment in tools and systems to protect its data. Which of the following did the CISO most likely select?

  A. PCI DSS

  B. COBIT

  C. ISO 27001

  D. ITIL

  Correct Answer: C

  ISO 27001 is an international standard that establishes a framework for implementing, maintaining, and improving an information security management system (ISMS). It helps organizations demonstrate their commitment to protecting their data and complying with various regulations and best practices. The other options are not relevant for this purpose: PCI DSS is a standard that focuses on protecting payment card data; COBIT is a framework that provides guidance on governance and management of enterprise IT; ITIL is a framework that provides guidance on service management and delivery. References: According to the CompTIA CySA+ Study Guide: S0-003, 3rd Edition1, one of the objectives for the exam is to "use appropriate tools and methods to manage, prioritize and respond to attacks and vulnerabilities". The book also covers the usage and syntax of various cybersecurity frameworks and standards, such as ISO 27001, PCI DSS, COBIT, and ITIL, in chapter 1. Specifically, it explains the meaning and function of each framework and standard, such as ISO 27001, which provides a comprehensive approach to information security management1, page 29. Therefore, this is a reliable source to verify the answer to the question.

• Question 35:

  A security analyst needs to secure digital evidence related to an incident. The security analyst must ensure that the accuracy of the data cannot be repudiated. Which of the following should be implemented?

  A. Offline storage

  B. Evidence collection

  C. Integrity validation

  D. Legal hold

  Correct Answer: C

  Integrity validation is the process of ensuring that the digital evidence has not been altered or tampered with during collection, acquisition, preservation, or analysis. It usually involves generating and verifying cryptographic hashes of the evidence, such as MD5 or SHA-1. Integrity validation is essential for maintaining the accuracy and admissibility of the digital evidence in court.

• Question 36:

  A security analyst has prepared a vulnerability scan that contains all of the company's functional subnets. During the initial scan, users reported that network printers began to print pages that contained unreadable text and icons.

  Which of the following should the analyst do to ensure this behavior does not oocur during subsequent vulnerability scans?

  A. Perform non-credentialed scans.

  B. Ignore embedded web server ports.

  C. Create a tailored scan for the printer subnet.

  D. Increase the threshold length of the scan timeout.

  Correct Answer: C

  The best way to prevent network printers from printing pages during a vulnerability scan is to create a tailored scan for the printer subnet that excludes the ports and services that trigger the printing behavior. The other options are not effective for this purpose: performing non-credentialed scans may not reduce the impact on the printers; ignoring embedded web server ports may not cover all the possible ports that cause printing; increasing the threshold length of the scan timeout may not prevent the printing from occurring. References: According to the CompTIA CySA+ Study Guide: S0-003, 3rd Edition1, one of the objectives for the exam is to "use appropriate tools and methods to manage, prioritize and respond to attacks and vulnerabilities". The book also covers the usage and syntax of vulnerability scanning tools, such as Nessus, Nmap, and Qualys, in chapter 4. Specifically, it explains the meaning and function of each component in vulnerability scanning, such as credentialed vs. non-credentialed scans, port scanning, and scan scheduling1, pages 149-160. It also discusses the common issues and challenges of vulnerability scanning, such as network disruptions, false positives, and scan scope1, pages 161-162. Therefore, this is a reliable source to verify the answer to the question.

• Question 37:

  A security analyst would like to integrate two different SaaS-based security tools so that one tool can notify the other in the event a threat is detected. Which of the following should the analyst utilize to best accomplish this goal?

  A. SMB share

  B. API endpoint

  C. SMTP notification

  D. SNMP trap

  Correct Answer: B

  An API endpoint is a point of entry for a communication between two different SaaS-based security tools. It allows one tool to send requests and receive responses from the other tool using a common interface. An API endpoint can be used to notify the other tool in the event a threat is detected and trigger an appropriate action. SMB share, SMTP notification, and SNMP trap are not suitable for SaaS integration security, as they are either network protocols or email services that do not provide a direct and secure communication between two different SaaS tools. References: Top 10 Best SaaS Security Tools - 2023, What is SaaS Security? A Guide to Everything SaaS Security, 6 Key Considerations for SaaS Integration Security | Prismatic, Introducing Security for Interconnected SaaS - Palo Alto Networks

• Question 38:

  An organization needs to bring in data collection and aggregation from various endpoints. Which of the following is the best tool to deploy to help analysts gather this data?

  A. DLP

  B. NAC

  C. EDR

  D. NIDS

  Correct Answer: C

  EDR stands for Endpoint Detection and Response, which is a tool that collects and aggregates data from various endpoints, such as laptops, servers, or mobile devices. EDR helps analysts monitor, detect, and respond to threats and incidents on the endpoints. EDR is more suitable than DLP (Data Loss Prevention), NAC (Network Access Control), or NIDS (Network Intrusion Detection System) for data collection and aggregation from endpoints. References: CompTIA CySA+ CS0-003 Certification Study Guide, Chapter 2: Software and Systems Security, page 75; What Is Data Aggregation? (Examples + Tools), Section: Data Aggregation: How It Works, Subsection: 1. Data Collection.

• Question 39:

  A security analyst reviews the following extract of a vulnerability scan that was performed against the web server:

  

  Which of the following recommendations should the security analyst provide to harden the web server?

  A. Remove the version information on http-server-header.

  B. Disable tcp_wrappers.

  C. Delete the /wp-login.php folder.

  D. Close port 22.

  Correct Answer: A

  The vulnerability scan shows that the version information is visible in the http-server-header, which can be exploited by attackers to identify vulnerabilities specific to that version. Removing or obfuscating this information can enhance security. References: CompTIA CySA+ CS0-003 Certification Study Guide, Chapter 4: Vulnerability Management, page 172; CompTIA CySA+ Study Guide: S0-003, 3rd Edition, Chapter 5: Vulnerability Management, page 223.

• Question 40:

  An analyst investigated a website and produced the following:

  

  Which of the following syntaxes did the analyst use to discover the application versions on this vulnerable website?

  A. nmap -sS -T4 -F insecure.org

  B. nmap -o insecure.org

  C. nmap -sV -T4 -F insecure.org

  D. nmap -A insecure.org

  Correct Answer: C