CompTIA CompTIA Certifications PK0-005 Questions & Answers

• Question 161:

  Which of the following PRINCE2 processes includes creating the project plan?

  A. Starting up a project

  B. Initiating a project

  C. Managing product delivery

  D. Directing a project

  Correct Answer: B

  According to PRINCE2, a project management methodology, the process of initiating a project includes creating the project plan, which is a high-level plan that covers the whole project scope, schedule, budget, quality, and risks. The project plan is based on the project brief, the business case, and the product descriptions. The project plan is used to obtain the authorization from the project board to initiate and execute the project. The project plan is also refined and updated throughout the project life cycle as more information becomes available. The other processes are not directly involved in creating the project plan. Starting up a project is a pre-project process that ensures the project is viable and worthwhile, and produces the project brief and the initiation stage plan. Managing product delivery is a process that coordinates the delivery of products from the team managers to the project manager, and ensures that the work conforms to the quality criteria and the project plan. Directing a project is a process that enables the project board to oversee and control the project, and make key decisions and approvals. References: CompTIA Project+ Study Guide: Exam PK0-005, 3rd Edition, Chapter 5: Project Scope Management; CompTIA Project+ Certification Study Guide, 3rd Edition, Chapter 5: Project Scope Management; PRINCE2 Processes - 7 Processes Of PRINCE2 Explained; Initiating a Project Process ?This process is the procedure which defines the product quality, Project Product, project timeline, costs, the commitment of resources, risk analysis, and assembles the Project Initiation Documentation (PID)

• Question 162:

  A project manager wants to schedule a troubleshooting session for team members who are located in Germany and California. Which of the following is most important for the project manager to consider when setting up the session?

  A. Cultural differences

  B. Technological factors

  C. Time zones

  D. Language barriers

  Correct Answer: C

  Time zones are the most important factor to consider when setting up a troubleshooting session for team members who are located in different regions of the world. The project manager should ensure that the session is scheduled at a convenient and reasonable time for all participants, and avoid scheduling conflicts or communication delays. Time zones can also affect the availability and responsiveness of stakeholders, vendors, and customers.

• Question 163:

  A project manager queries stakeholders to identify the right communication channel to be used during the project life cycle. After reviewing the responses, the project manager reports that 70% of the stakeholders prefer email communication,

  and the rest prefer face- to-face communication.

  The project manager should update the stakeholder register with:

  A. the preferred sponsor's communication channel.

  B. the preferred project manager's communication channel.

  C. the preferred reported communication channel.

  D. email communication as the preferred communication channel.

  Correct Answer: C

  This answer is based on the best practice of stakeholder management, which is to identify and document the communication preferences of each stakeholder or stakeholder group. The project manager should update the stakeholder register

  with the information gathered from the stakeholder analysis, which includes the preferred communication channel for each stakeholder. The preferred reported communication channel reflects the majority preference of the stakeholders, as

  well as the minority preference of the face-to-face communicators. The project manager should use this information to plan and execute effective communication throughout the project life cycle.

  References:

  CompTIA Project+ Certification Study Guide5, CompTIA Project+ Certification Exam Objectives6, Stakeholder Register in Project Management What is a Stakeholder Register?

  How to Develop a Stakeholder Register

• Question 164:

  A project team participates in a brainstorming session to define the guidance, direction, and approach for monitoring established procedures for developed products. Which of the following plans is the team creating?

  A. Project transition

  B. Project management

  C. Project communications

  D. Project quality assurance

  Correct Answer: D

  Project quality assurance is the process of ensuring that the project meets the quality standards and requirements defined by the stakeholders and the organization. It involves planning, implementing, and monitoring quality activities throughout the project life cycle. Project quality assurance is different from project quality control, which is the process of inspecting and testing the project deliverables and outputs to identify and correct defects. Project quality assurance is also different from project transition, which is the process of transferring the project deliverables and outputs to the end users or customers. Project management is the application of knowledge, skills, tools, and techniques to project activities to meet the project objectives. Project communications is the process of planning, creating, distributing, and managing information among the project stakeholders. References: CompTIA Project+ Study Guide: Exam PK0-005, 3rd Edition, Chapter 8: Quality Management; CompTIA Project+ Certification Study Guide, 3rd Edition, Chapter 8: Quality Management

• Question 165:

  By developing a project schedule, a PM has already validated the constraints, outlined the duration of the tasks and the phases, and confirmed the proper sequence and flow of the project. Which of the following activities still needs to be performed to complete the schedule?

  A. Allocate resources.

  B. Determine the project budget

  C. Develop a communication plan.

  D. Establish baselines.

  Correct Answer: D

  The next step after defining tasks, durations, resources, and costs is to establish baselines. A baseline is an approved version of a project plan that serves as a reference point for measuring progress and performance throughout the project lifecycle. A baseline typically includes scope, schedule, cost, quality, and risk parameters. Establishing baselines involves presenting the project plan to key stakeholders and obtaining their formal agreement on the project objectives and deliverables. Baseline approval can help to establish clear expectations, avoid scope creep, and facilitate change control during project execution.

• Question 166:

  A meeting agenda included the following items:

  Review the goals of the project.

  Review the progress of the project.

  Discuss if the project is ready to move forward.

  Which of the following best describes this type of meeting?

  A. Stand-up

  B. Monthly status

  C. Gap analysis

  D. Gate review

  Correct Answer: D

  A gate review is a type of meeting that evaluates the completion and quality of a project stage and decides whether the project can proceed to the next stage. A gate review is a formal governance step that involves reviewing the goals,

  progress, risks, deliverables, and benefits of the project, and discussing if the project is still aligned with the business strategy and stakeholder expectations. A gate review can have different outcomes, such as go, kill, hold, recycle, or

  conditional go, depending on the assessment of the project status and viability.

  References:

  CompTIA Project+ Study Guide: Exam PK0-005, 3rd Edition, Chapter 9: Project Change Management, p. 323; Everything Project Managers Need To Know About Gate Reviews | monday.com Blog; Gate reviews: What to do and why you

  need them - Rebel's Guide to Project Management; Gates and How to Operate Them - GenSight

• Question 167:

  A project manager is receiving reports of the actual project expenditures and, based on this information, is making adjustments to the budget. In which of the following phases does this occur?

  A. Planning

  B. Closure

  C. Initiation

  D. Execution

  Correct Answer: D

  The execution phase is when the project manager and the team execute the project plan, deliver the project outputs, and monitor and control the project performance. This includes tracking and managing the project budget, scope, schedule,

  quality, and risks. Making adjustments to the budget based on the actual project expenditures is part of the monitoring and controlling process in the execution phase.

  References: CompTIA Project+ Study Guide: Exam PK0-005, 3rd Edition, Chapter 10: Executing and Closing Projects, p. 263.

• Question 168:

  A project manager will conduct a release on the third Friday of the month. The project manager has notified users that the application will be unavailable for eight hours. Hence, users need to save any information in advance. Which of the following is the project manager most likely conducting?

  A. Application deployment

  B. Rollback plans

  C. Validation checks

  D. Maintenance window schedules

  Correct Answer: A

  Application deployment typically involves making a software application available for use, often involving downtime or unavailability of the application. The description of the project manager notifying users about the application being unavailable for a certain period aligns with standard practices during deployment phases. The other options, such as rollback plans, validation checks, and maintenance window schedules, although important, do not directly indicate the action of making an application available for use, as described in the scenario.

• Question 169:

  A project manager is monitoring team performance by comparing committed versus completed work. The project manager creates the following:

  

  Which of the following most likely represents the number of items in the backlog?

  A. 23

  B. 5

  C. 10

  D. 15

  Correct Answer: A

  The number of items in the backlog can be determined by looking at the "Commitment" column for each sprint in the provided chart. For Sprint 5, there is a commitment of completing 23 items, which is the highest among all sprints. This indicates that there are at least 23 items in the backlog to be worked on. This is consistent with the concept of agile project management, which allows for changes and additions to the project scope based on customer feedback and changing requirements. References: CompTIA Project+ PK0-005 Certification Study Guide, Chapter 14: Agile Project Management, page 321. CompTIA Project+ Cert Guide: Exam PK0-004, Chapter 9: Agile Project Management, page 287

• Question 170:

  Which of the following requires the MOST availability from the business team?

  A. SDLC

  B. Scrum

  C. PRINCE2

  D. Waterfall

  Correct Answer: B

  Scrum requires the most availability from the business team among the given options. Scrum is a popular agile framework that organizes work into short iterations called sprints, usually lasting one to four weeks. Scrum emphasizes collaboration between teams, customers, and stakeholders and encourages open communication and transparency throughout the project lifecycle. Scrum requires frequent involvement and feedback from the business team through activities such as product backlog refinement, sprint planning, sprint review, sprint retrospective, and daily scrum meetings.