CompTIA CompTIA Certifications PK0-005 Questions & Answers

• Question 11:

  To gather requirements from stakeholders, the project manager sits down with them and allows them to discuss freely. Which a following technique is the project manager utilizing?

  A. Process moving

  B. Brainstorming

  C. Interview

  D. Focus group

  Correct Answer: D

  A focus group is a technique that involves bringing together a group of stakeholders and facilitating a discussion to elicit their opinions, needs, and expectations about the project. This technique can help to gather requirements from stakeholders in an interactive and collaborative way, p. 67

• Question 12:

  A key stakeholder recommends to a senior developer that a new feature be added. The new feature is not part of the current requirement documentation. Which of the following is MOST likely happening?

  A. Scope creep

  B. Collecting requirements

  C. Decision-making

  D. Project change

  Correct Answer: A

  Scope creep is most likely happening when a key stakeholder recommends to a senior developer that a new feature be added that is not part of the current requirement documentation. Scope creep is a term that refers to the uncontrolled expansion or change of a project's scope beyond its original boundaries or objectives. Scope creep can happen due to various reasons, such as changing customer demands, unclear or incomplete requirements, poor communication, lack of change control, or stakeholder interference. Scope creep can have negative impacts on a project, such as delays, cost overruns, quality issues, or reduced customer satisfaction.

• Question 13:

  A project was closed according to the planned project schedule. Security teams later identified that one of the contractors stole data after the project's closure. Which of the following would have most likely prevented the data from being stolen?

  A. Removing access

  B. Closing contracts

  C. Project sign-off

  D. Project evaluation

  Correct Answer: A

  Removing access means revoking the contractor's permissions to access the project data, systems, and devices after the project is closed. This is a crucial security measure to prevent unauthorized access, misuse, or theft of sensitive data

  by external parties. Closing contracts, project sign-off, and project evaluation are important steps in the project closure process, but they do not necessarily prevent data theft by themselves. They may involve formal agreements,

  documentation, and feedback, but they do not address the technical aspects of data security.

  References:

  CompTIA Project+ Study Guide: Exam PK0-005, Third Edition, Chapter 14: Closing the Project, page 377; 9 Ways to Prevent Third- Party Data Breaches in 2023; 3 Ways to Prevent Data Theft by Contractors

• Question 14:

  Government projects require that personnel submit to background screenings for certain clearance requirements. Which of the following best describes this process?

  A. Data security

  B. Operational security

  C. Physical security

  D. Digital security

  Correct Answer: B

  Operational security is the process of identifying, protecting, and controlling sensitive information and activities from unauthorized access or disclosure. Operational security includes background screenings for personnel who need to access

  classified or restricted information or resources, as well as implementing policies and procedures to prevent leaks, breaches, or espionage. Operational security is essential for government projects that involve national security, defense,

  intelligence, or law enforcement.

  Operational security is different from data security, which is the process of safeguarding data from unauthorized access, use, modification, or destruction. Data security includes encryption, authentication, authorization, backup, and recovery

  of data. Operational security is also different from physical security, which is the process of securing physical assets, such as equipment, data, or personnel, from unauthorized access or damage. Physical security includes locks, alarms,

  cameras, guards, and fences. Operational security is also different from digital security, which is the process of protecting digital devices, networks, and systems from cyberattacks, malware, or hacking. Digital security includes firewalls,

  antivirus, VPN, and passwords.

  References:

  CompTIA Project+ Study Guide:

  Exam PK0-005, 3rd Edition, Chapter 9: Security Management

  1.

  CompTIA Project+ Certification Study Guide, 3rd Edition, Chapter 9: Security Management

  2.

  What is Operational Security (OPSEC)?

• Question 15:

  A project manager is leading the implementation of a new service for a well-known, global company for which brand image is most important. The project will rely on contracted services. As part of the request for proposal process, the project team has identified a short list of vendors to submit proposals. Which of the following items should the project team consider as a primary factor to remove a vendor from consideration?

  A. The vendor's proposed schedule does not align with the desired schedule.

  B. The vendor is new and not well established in the market.

  C. The vendor has been linked to ESG concerns within the past month

  D. The vendor's quote was the highest of all the proposals.

  Correct Answer: C

  ESG stands for environmental, social, and governance, and it refers to the criteria that measure the sustainability and ethical impact of an organization. ESG concerns can affect the reputation, performance, and value of a company, as well as its stakeholders and customers. For a well-known, global company that values its brand image, hiring a vendor that has been linked to ESG concerns can be a major risk and a source of negative publicity. Therefore, the project team should consider this as a primary factor to remove a vendor from consideration.

• Question 16:

  A project team member wrote a user guide over the past ten days. Given the following scatter diagram.

  

  Which of the following can be formally conducted?

  A. The team member prioritized other tasks over the completion of this task

  B. The learn member had performance issues over time.

  C. There is a negative correlation with time and output

  D. This is a display of units of outstanding work to predict completion

  Correct Answer: C

  The scatter diagram shows a clear negative correlation between time (days) and output (pages), meaning as time progresses, the number of pages completed decreases. This is evident from the downward trend of the plotted points on the graph.

  References: CompTIA Project+ Certification Study Guide, Chapter 3: Project Execution, page 130; CompTIA Project+ Certification Exam Objectives, Domain 3.0:

  Project Execution, Objective 3.3: Analyze project performance by using appropriate tools and techniques, Sub-objective 3.3.2: Given a scenario, interpret the results of data analysis using appropriate tools and techniques, Knowledge of:

  Scatter diagrams.

• Question 17:

  A project manager identifies stakeholders who will be impacted when a new product is delivered to the company. The project manager notices that more stakeholders will be positively impacted than negatively impacted. Which of the following actions should the project manager take?

  A. List both positively and negatively impacted stakeholders.

  B. Update the communication plan with the new findings.

  C. List the negatively impacted stakeholders only.

  D. List the positively impacted stakeholders only.

  Correct Answer: B

  When a project manager identifies stakeholders who will be impacted by the delivery of a new product, it is important to update the communication plan to reflect these findings. This ensures that all stakeholders are informed about the

  project's progress and how it may affect them, fostering transparency and managing expectations.

  References:

  The answer is based on standard project management practices and the typical use of communication plans in stakeholder management. For detailed information, please refer to the CompTIA Project+ Study Guide and other official CompTIA

  resources.

• Question 18:

  A project manager is coordinating multiple teams of six people that will each provide feedback for a new product. The teams are recording their opinions, which may be used to define the final product that is sent to mass production. Which of the following best describes this technique?

  A. Demonstration

  B. Workshop

  C. Brainstorming

  D. Focus group

  Correct Answer: D

  A focus group is a technique that involves gathering a group of people who share some characteristics or interests related to a product, service, or issue, and asking them for their opinions, perceptions, or feedback. The project manager acts

  as a moderator or facilitator who guides the discussion and records the results. A focus group can help to collect information from a representative sample of the target population, explore ideas, identify needs and preferences, and support

  the completion of larger projects. The other options are not correct because:

  A demonstration is a technique that involves showing the features or capabilities of a product, service, or process to the stakeholders or customers, usually in a live or simulated environment. A demonstration can help to validate the

  requirements, obtain feedback, and verify the functionality of a deliverable. A workshop is a technique that involves bringing together a group of stakeholders or experts to work on a specific topic, problem, or issue, usually in a structured and

  facilitated way. A workshop can help to define the scope, plan the activities, identify the risks, resolve the conflicts, and generate the solutions of a project. Brainstorming is a technique that involves generating a large number of ideas or

  alternatives for a problem or opportunity, usually in a creative and spontaneous way. Brainstorming can help to enhance the creativity, diversity, and quality of the ideas, and encourage the participation and collaboration of the team members.

  References:

  CompTIA Project+ Study Guide: Exam PK0-005, 3rd Edition, Chapter 6: Planning Projects, Part 2 (Scope, Quality, and Risk), page 191; CompTIA Project+ Certification Exam Objectives, Domain 2: Project Planning, Objective 2.1:

  Given a scenario, create a project charter and project management plan.

• Question 19:

  Which of the following factors would be impacted the most by requirements for a project to implement an air quality control system at a coal plant?

  A. Social

  B. Regulatory

  C. Environmental

  D. Governmental

  Correct Answer: C

  The environmental factor would be impacted the most by requirements for a project to implement an air quality control system at a coal plant. This is because coal combustion produces various air pollutants, such as particulate matter (PM),

  sulfur dioxide (SO2), nitrogen oxides (NOx), carbon dioxide (CO2), and mercury, that can harm human health and the environment. An air quality control system can reduce the emissions of these pollutants by using different technologies,

  such as low NOx burners, flue gas desulfurization, electrostatic precipitators, and carbon capture and storage. However, these technologies also have environmental impacts, such as water consumption, waste generation, energy

  consumption, and greenhouse gas emissions. Therefore, the project manager should consider the environmental factor in terms of the project scope, objectives, constraints, risks, and stakeholders, and evaluate the trade-offs and benefits of

  different air quality control options.

  References:

  CompTIA Project+ Study Guide: Exam PK0-005, 3rd Edition, Chapter 3: Project Scope Management, p. 97; Update on air pollution control strategies for coal-fired power plants; AQCS Air Quality Control Systems; NOx control for high-ash

  coal-fired power plants in India; Coal Dust Control

• Question 20:

  Which of the following should be considered first when determining the privacy management for project data?

  A. Evaluating the current privacy protection program

  B. Understanding applicable privacy regulations

  C. Maintaining awareness of industry best practices

  D. Implementing security role-based controls

  Correct Answer: B

  Before starting a new project that involves personal data, the project manager should first understand the relevant privacy regulations that apply to the data subjects, the data controllers, and the data processors. These regulations may vary

  depending on the location, industry, and nature of the data. For example, GDPR applies to any project that processes the personal data of individuals in the European Union, regardless of where the project is based or executed.

  Understanding the applicable privacy regulations will help the project manager to identify the legal obligations, risks, and compliance requirements for the project data.

  References:

  CompTIA Project+ Study Guide, Chapter 3: Project Planning, Section 3.4: Data Privacy and Security, p. 121-122; A Project Management Approach to Data Protection Compliance; 10 Data Protection Considerations Before Starting a New

  Project; Project Teams Must Manage Risk and New Requirements to Ensure Data Privacy