CompTIA CompTIA Certifications PK0-005 Questions & Answers

• Question 141:

  Which of the following would most likely take place when a team reviews the backlog and presents the status of each task?

  A. Sprint retrospective

  B. Sprint review

  C. Sprint planning

  D. Daily Scrum

  Correct Answer: B

  A Sprint Review involves reviewing the completed backlog items and presenting the work to stakeholders. This aligns with CompTIA Project+ agile practices, where a Sprint Review focuses on completed tasks and feedback.

• Question 142:

  Which of the following activities would force a team to remove a new package and leave the previous one during a smoke test?

  A. Rollback plan

  B. Downtime stage

  C. Maintenance window

  D. Validation checks

  Correct Answer: A

  A rollback plan is used when an issue is identified during testing or implementation. It allows the team to revert to the previous state, removing the new package. This aligns with CompTIA Project+ guidance on implementing fallback strategies for risk management.

• Question 143:

  A project manager has received different functional requests from three individual stakeholders. The project manager is able to have all parties concede somewhat in order to find a reasonable solution. Which of the following outcomes would most likely occur?

  A. Too much time might be spent generating project delays.

  B. The project manager might be seen as weak.

  C. The number of change requests throughout the project might be reduced.

  D. Some stakeholders might not be completely satisfied.

  Correct Answer: D

  When a project manager achieves a compromise, it often means that stakeholders may not be entirely satisfied with the outcome. However, compromise is sometimes necessary to balance differing needs, consistent with CompTIA Project+ principles on stakeholder management and negotiation.

• Question 144:

  Which of the following describes KPIs?

  A. Analyses of organizational strengths and weaknesses

  B. Graphical representations of process flow

  C. Elements against which performance can be measured

  D. Collaboration platform tools

  Correct Answer: C

• Question 145:

  Which of the following describes some of the features of the Agile methodology?

  A. It uses a direct approach, Gantt charts, and a ticketing system.

  B. It uses an indirect approach, spreadsheets for documentation, and change request documents.

  C. It uses an iterative approach, backlogs, and burndown charts.

  D. It uses a step-by approach, an issue log, and pie charts.

  Correct Answer: C

• Question 146:

  A PM is working to establish accepted communication channels and to define access requirements. In which of the following phases is the project?

  A. Discovery

  B. Execution

  C. Initiating

  D. Planning

  Correct Answer: D

  Defining communication channels and access requirements typically occurs in the planning phase, where detailed plans for project management are established. This aligns with CompTIA Project+ standards for comprehensive project planning.

• Question 147:

  A project manager is meeting with business stakeholders to define the time frame for a go-live to occur without impacting business operations. Which of the following is the project manager working on?

  A. Validation check

  B. Downtime window schedule

  C. Customer notifications

  D. Risk analysis

  Correct Answer: B

  A downtime window schedule specifies a timeframe during which systems can be taken offline or changed without affecting business operations. CompTIA Project+ includes this as part of deployment planning to ensure minimal disruption to stakeholders.

• Question 148:

  A lessons-learned meeting took more than two hours and ended without defining a standardized process. The project manager decides to move forward without allowing changes to the existing process. Which of the following techniques is the project manager using?

  A. Forcing

  B. Avoiding

  C. Compromising

  D. Smoothing

  Correct Answer: A

  Forcing is a conflict resolution technique where the project manager makes a decision unilaterally, without seeking consensus. According to CompTIA Project+, forcing may be used when time is critical, and decisions need to be made promptly.

• Question 149:

  A client made a change request. Implementing the change will cause a delay in the project and a budget overrun. Which of the following should the project manager do first?

  A. Update the WBS.

  B. Escalate to the CCB.

  C. Accept the change.

  D. Implement the change.

  Correct Answer: B

  Escalating to the Change Control Board (CCB) is necessary when a change request impacts the project's timeline or budget. The CCB reviews and approves changes, ensuring that they align with project objectives. CompTIA Project+ highlights the role of the CCB in change management processes.

• Question 150:

  A project manager distributes minutes after each project meeting. However, the project manager is having difficulties hosting the meetings and documenting the discussions simultaneously. Which of the following should the project manager do in order to be most efficient?

  A. Assign a scribe to take notes.

  B. Record the meeting and transcribe the notes later.

  C. Instruct each team member to take notes.

  D. Get a facilitator for the meetings.

  Correct Answer: A

  Assigning a scribe allows the project manager to focus on hosting and facilitating the meeting effectively without being distracted by note-taking. This approach is consistent with best practices in meeting management and aligns with CompTIA Project+ guidelines, which emphasize the importance of efficient meeting roles and responsibilities.