CompTIA CompTIA Certifications PK0-005 Questions & Answers

• Question 51:

  A project team is working remotely from different locations across the country. As part of a lessons-learned exercise, the project manager would like to identify the level of engagement among project team members. Which of the following would be the best tool for the project manager to use?

  A. Meeting chat

  B. Email

  C. Real-time survey

  D. Whiteboard

  Correct Answer: C

  A real-time survey is a tool that allows the project manager to collect feedback from the project team members in an interactive and timely manner. A real-time survey can measure the level of engagement, satisfaction, motivation, and performance of the team members, as well as identify any issues, challenges, or opportunities for improvement. A real-time survey can also increase the participation and collaboration of the team members, as they can see the results and comments of their peers instantly. A real-time survey is more effective than a meeting chat, an email, or a whiteboard, as it can reach a larger and more diverse audience, provide more structured and quantitative data, and avoid distractions and interruptions. References: CompTIA Project+ Study Guide: Exam PK0-005, 3rd Edition, Chapter 10: Project Closure, p. 367; The 9 best online survey apps in 2023 | Zapier

• Question 52:

  Which of the following should be the PRIMARY basis for establishing metrics that measure the effectiveness of an information security program?

  A. Residual risk

  B. Regulatory requirements

  C. Risk tolerance

  D. Control objectives

  Correct Answer: D

  Control objectives are the desired outcomes or goals of implementing security controls to mitigate risks and protect information assets. Control objectives should be the primary basis for establishing metrics that measure the effectiveness of an information security program, as they align with the business objectives, requirements, and expectations of the organization and its stakeholders. Metrics based on control objectives can help to evaluate the performance, efficiency, and maturity of the security program, and to identify gaps, issues, and areas for improvement. The other options are not correct because:

  Residual risk is the remaining risk after applying security controls. Residual risk is not a basis for establishing metrics, but rather a result of measuring the effectiveness of security controls. Residual risk should be monitored and reported, but it does not define the desired outcomes or goals of the security program.

  Regulatory requirements are the external standards, laws, and regulations that the organization must comply with to avoid legal or financial penalties. Regulatory requirements are not a basis for establishing metrics, but rather a constraint or a driver for the security program. Metrics based on regulatory requirements can help to demonstrate compliance, but they may not reflect the actual effectiveness or efficiency of the security program.

  Risk tolerance is the level of risk that the organization is willing to accept or bear. Risk tolerance is not a basis for establishing metrics, but rather a factor or an input for the security program. Metrics based on risk tolerance can help to prioritize and allocate resources, but they may not measure the actual outcomes or goals of the security program.

  References: Key Performance Indicators for Security Governance, Part 1; 14 Cybersecurity Metrics + KPIs You Must Track in 2023; KPIs in Information Security: The 10 Most Important Security Metrics; Why metrics are crucial to proving cybersecurity programs' value; Implementing and Maintaining Security Program Metrics

• Question 53:

  Given the following velocity chart:

  

  Which of the following updates on the project status should the Scrum master provide to the senior management team?

  A. The project utilized all of its available reserve.

  B. The project has scope creep.

  C. The project deviated from the critical path.

  D. The project is trending ahead of schedule.

  Correct Answer: D

  A velocity chart is a tool used in agile project management to track the progress and performance of a project team over time. It shows the number of features or user stories completed in each iteration or sprint. The planned timeline line

  represents the expected or ideal velocity, while the actual effort line shows the actual or achieved velocity. By comparing the two lines, the Scrum master can identify any gaps, trends, or issues in the project delivery.

  Based on the image, the most likely update that the Scrum master can provide to the senior management team is D. The project is trending ahead of schedule. This is because the actual effort line is above the planned timeline line for most of

  the time, indicating that the project team is completing more features than expected in each sprint. This means that the project is ahead of schedule and has a positive velocity variance.

• Question 54:

  A project manager and team are reviewing a task that is supposed to take nine days to complete and cost $3,000. There is a 20% chance that an associated risk related to changing requirements could occur, resulting in rework that would add an additional five days and $1,000 in costs. Which of the following represents the total amount that should be budgeted for the task?

  A. 9 days and $3,000

  B. 10 days and $3,200

  C. 12 days and $3,800

  D. 14 days and $4,000

  Correct Answer: B

  The total amount that should be budgeted for the task is calculated by adding the expected value of the risk to the original estimate. The expected value of the risk is the product of the probability and the impact of the risk. In this case, the expected value of the risk is 0.2 x (5 days and $1,000) = 1 day and $200. Therefore, the total amount that should be budgeted for the task is 9 days and $3,000 + 1 day and $200 = 10 days and $3,2001.

• Question 55:

  A stakeholder works in a remote location and has not been replying to emails. The Internet service in that location is intermittent, and the stakeholder prefers to be contacted by telephone. Which of the following artifacts should the project manager have prepared to avoid this situation?

  A. Responsibility assignment matrix

  B. Acceptable communication channels

  C. Risk registry

  D. Staff directory

  Correct Answer: B

  The project manager should have prepared acceptable communication channels to avoid the situation of a stakeholder not replying to emails due to intermittent Internet service. Acceptable communication channels are methods or modes of communication that are agreed upon by all parties involved in a project. They may include aspects such as email, phone call, text message, video conference, instant message, or face-to-face meeting. Acceptable communication channels can help to ensure that messages are delivered and received effectively and efficiently and that communication preferences and limitations are respected.

• Question 56:

  During a complex, multiyear project, a PM must discern which project tasks overlap so resources can be allocated appropriately. Which of the following is best for determining this information?

  A. PERT chart

  B. Milestone chart

  C. Gantt chart

  D. Budget burndown chart

  Correct Answer: C

  A Gantt chart is a visual tool used in project management to represent the timing of tasks required to complete a project. It is particularly useful for showing the start and finish dates of elements of a project, dependencies between tasks, and

  the current schedule status. This makes it an ideal choice for a project manager to discern overlapping tasks and allocate resources efficiently.

  References: CompTIA Project+ Certification Study Guide (PK0-005)

• Question 57:

  An software engineer is applying new updates to a program in a sandbox environment. Which of the following risk strategies best describes this practice?

  A. Transfer

  B. Mitigate

  C. Avoid

  D. Accept

  Correct Answer: B

  Mitigate is a risk strategy that involves taking actions to reduce the probability or impact of a risk. By applying new updates to a program in a sandbox environment, the software engineer is testing the changes before implementing them in the actual system, thus minimizing the chance of errors or failures that could affect the project.

• Question 58:

  Which of the following pieces of data are examples of Pll?

  A. Medical record and test result values

  B. IP address and email address

  C. Name and year of birth

  D. X-ray and blood type

  Correct Answer: B

  Pll stands for personally identifiable information, which is any data that can be used to identify a specific individual. Examples of Pll include name, address, phone number, email address, social security number, passport number, driver's

  license number, etc. IP address and email address are both Pll because they can be used to trace the identity and location of a person. Medical record and test result values, name and year of birth, and x-ray and blood type are not Pll by

  themselves, but they can become Pll if they are combined with other data that can link them to a specific individual.

  References:

  CompTIA Project+ Study Guide: Exam PK0-005, 3rd Edition, Chapter 10: Project Security, page 331. CompTIA Project+ Certification Exam Objectives, Domain 4: Project Security, Objective 4.1: Given a scenario, apply security best practices

  to a project, Sub-objective: Identify and classify Pll.

• Question 59:

  In a functional organization, a project has been completed successfully. Which of the following actions would the project manager MOST likely perform?

  A. Assemble a new project with existing resources.

  B. Obtain the final report from release management.

  C. Notify the functional manager that resources are released.

  D. Allocate resources in a different project

  Correct Answer: C

  The project manager should notify the functional manager that resources are released after completing a project successfully in a functional organization. A functional organization is a type of organizational structure where employees are grouped by their functions or specialties, such as finance, marketing, or engineering. In a functional organization, the functional manager has more authority and control over the resources than the project manager. Therefore, the project manager should inform the functional manager when the resources are no longer needed for the project and can be reassigned to other tasks or projects.

• Question 60:

  Which of the following contract types in project procurement has the highest risk for the buyer?

  A. Time and material

  B. Cost-plus

  C. Fixed-price

  D. Unit price

  Correct Answer: B

  A cost-plus contract is a type of contract where the buyer agrees to reimburse the seller for the actual costs of the work plus a fee, which can be fixed, percentage, incentive, or award based. This type of contract has the highest risk for the

  buyer because the buyer has no control over the cost or quantity of the work and the seller has little incentive to control the costs or complete the work efficiently. The seller may inflate the costs or prolong the work to increase the fee. The

  buyer may end up paying much more than the estimated budget or the market value of the work.

  References:

  CompTIA Project+ PK0-005 Certification Study Guide, Chapter 9: Project Procurement Management; CompTIA Project+ Certification Exam Objectives, Domain 3: Project Execution, Objective 3.3: Execute procurement activities.