CompTIA CompTIA Certifications PK0-005 Questions & Answers

• Question 191:

  Which of the following offers administrators more direct control over operating systems?

  A. Infrastructure as a service

  B. Software as a service

  C. Functions as a service

  D. Platform as a service

  Correct Answer: A

  Infrastructure as a service (IaaS) offers administrators more direct control over operating systems than other cloud service models. IaaS is a type of cloud computing service that provides virtualized computing resources such as servers, storage, network, and operating systems over the internet. IaaS allows users to rent or lease infrastructure resources on demand and pay only for what they use. IaaS gives users more flexibility and control over their infrastructure resources and enables them to configure, manage, and customize their operating systems according to their needs and preferences.

• Question 192:

  While developing a project charter, a PM discovers that some of the legal requirements have not been addressed during the project concept preparation, which could result in significant financial penalties against the organization. The PM

  knows that implementation of appropriate changes is costly and will exceed the budget and scope of the project.

  Which of the following should the PM do FIRST?

  A. Escalate the finding to the change control board.

  B. Add a risk to the risk register for validation.

  C. Consult the RACI matrix to identify ownership of the risk.

  D. Have a meeting with the project sponsor and main stakeholders.

  Correct Answer: D

  The project manager should have a meeting with the project sponsor and main stakeholders first after discovering that some of the legal requirements have not been addressed during the project concept preparation. The project sponsor and main stakeholders are the key decision-makers and influencers of the project. They have the authority and responsibility to approve or reject any changes to the project scope, budget, or schedule. Having a meeting with them can help to communicate the issue, assess the impact, explore alternatives, and seek guidance on how to proceed with the project.

• Question 193:

  Given the following information:

  

  Which of the following represents the critical path of the project?

  A. A-C-F-I-J

  B. A-C-F-H-J

  C. A-B-D-G-J

  D. A-B-E-G-J

  Correct Answer: C

  The critical path of the project is the longest sequence of tasks that must be completed on time for the project to finish on schedule. It determines the shortest possible duration of the project and shows the tasks that have no slack or float. Any delay in the critical path tasks will affect the project completion date. To find the critical path, we need to calculate the earliest start (ES), earliest finish (EF), latest start (LS), latest finish (LF), and slack (S) for each task. We can use the table and the network diagram given in the question to do this. The formula for calculating the slack is S = LF - EF or S = LS - ES. A task with zero slack is on the critical path. The calculations are as follows:

  Task | Duration | ES | EF | LS | LF | S A | 10 | 0 | 10 | 0 | 10 | 0 B | 15 | 10 | 25 | 10 | 25 | 0 C | 10 | 10 | 20 | 15 | 25 | 5 D | 20 | 25 | 45 | 25 | 45 | 0 E | 10 | 25 | 35 | 35 | 45 | 10 F | 15 | 20 | 35 | 30 | 45 | 10 G | 5 | 45 | 50 | 45 | 50 | 0 H | 10 | 35 | 45 | 40 | 50 | 5 I | 20 | 35 | 55 | 30 | 50 | -5 J | 5 | 50 | 55 | 50 | 55 | 0

  Based on the table, we can see that the tasks with zero slack are A, B, D, G, and J. Therefore, the critical path is A-B-D-G-J, which has a total duration of 55 days. The other options are not the correct critical paths, as they either include tasks with positive slack (such as C, E, F, and H) or have a longer duration than 55 days (such as A-C-F-I-J).

• Question 194:

  A project sponsor would like to develop a minimum viable product, but the requirements are not well defined. Which of the following should the project sponsor use?

  A. Rational Unified Process

  B. Waterfall

  C. Agile

  D. DevOps

  Correct Answer: C

  Agile is a methodology that emphasizes iterative and incremental development, customer collaboration, and responsiveness to change. Agile is suitable for developing a minimum viable product (MVP), which is a version of a product with just

  enough features to be usable by early customers who can then provide feedback for future product development. Agile allows the project sponsor to deliver an MVP quickly and test it with real users, and then adapt the product based on the

  feedback and changing requirements. Agile also reduces the risk of wasting time and resources on a product that does not meet the customer's needs or expectations.

  References:

  CompTIA Project+ Study Guide:

  Exam PK0-005, 3rd Edition, Chapter 2: Project Methodologies, p. 55; What is a Minimum Viable Product (MVP)? | Agile Alliance; Minimum Viable Product (MVP): What is it and Why it Matters - Atlassian

• Question 195:

  A project manager is eager to define access requirements during the initiation phase of a project. Which of the following steps should the project manager perform first?

  A. Define the WBS.

  B. Develop a RAM.

  C. Manage the vendors.

  D. Assess the resource pool.

  Correct Answer: D

  This answer is based on the best practice of defining access requirements in project management, which is to identify the roles, responsibilities, and permissions of the project team members and other stakeholders who need to access the project information, resources, and deliverables. The first step in this process is to assess the resource pool, which is the availability and capability of the human resources that can be assigned to the project. By assessing the resource pool, the project manager can determine the skills, experience, and security clearance of the potential project team members, as well as their reporting relationships, communication preferences, and expectations. This information can help the project manager to define the access requirements for each role and stakeholder group, and to assign the appropriate level of access to the project data, documents, tools, and systems. References: CompTIA Project+ Certification Study Guide9, CompTIA Project+ Certification Exam Objectives10, What is Requirements Management? How to Write Project Requirements, A Guide to Functional Requirements, Project Requirements Management: A Quick Guide, Creating clear project requirements, How to Define Project Roles and Responsibilities

• Question 196:

  During the execution phase, user accepted testing failed; nonetheless, the vendor PM is insisting that the program manager approve the invoice for this phase. Which of the following actions should the Program manager take?

  A. Escalate the issue with the project sponsor and ask for assistance in managing the situation.

  B. Work with the vendor to achieve a compromise that benefits everyone.

  C. Approve the invoice to avoid damaging the relationship with the vendor.

  D. Schedule a call with the vendor PM and vendor executive to review the statement of work.

  Correct Answer: D

  The program manager should schedule a call with the vendor PM and vendor executive to review the statement of work (SOW), which is a document that defines the scope, deliverables, timeline, quality, and payment terms of the project. The program manager should clarify the expectations and criteria for user acceptance testing (UAT), which is a process of verifying that the system meets the user's requirements and expectations. The program manager should also discuss the reasons for the UAT failure and the corrective actions needed to resolve the issues. The program manager should not approve the invoice until the UAT is successfully completed, as this would compromise the quality and value of the project. The program manager should also not escalate the issue or work on a compromise without first reviewing the SOW and communicating with the vendor.

• Question 197:

  A project manager and team are currently in the planning phase of a project. Which of the following should the team do during this phase?

  A. Identify and assess stakeholders.

  B. Hold daily status meetings.

  C. Remove access and plan the project sign-off.

  D. Review assumptions and constraints for input to the risk register.

  Correct Answer: D

  The project manager and team should review assumptions and constraints for input to the risk register during the planning phase of a project. Assumptions are statements that are considered to be true for the purpose of planning, but may or may not be valid in reality. Constraints are factors that limit the project scope, time, cost, quality, or resources. Both assumptions and constraints can introduce risks to the project, which are uncertain events or conditions that can have a positive or negative impact on the project objectives. The risk register is a document that records the identified risks, their causes, impacts, probabilities, responses, owners, and status. Reviewing assumptions and constraints can help the project manager and team identify, analyze, prioritize, and plan for the potential risks that may affect the project. The other options are not the correct activities that the team should do during the planning phase of a project. Identifying and assessing stakeholders (option A) is an activity that is done during the initiating phase of a project, not the planning phase. Stakeholders are individuals or groups that have an interest or influence in the project, and their identification and assessment is important to define the project scope, objectives, and success criteria, and to establish a communication plan. Holding daily status meetings (option B) is an activity that is done during the executing and monitoring and controlling phases of a project, not the planning phase. Daily status meetings are short and frequent meetings where the project team members report on their progress, issues, and plans for the next day. Daily status meetings can help the project manager track the project performance, resolve problems, and communicate updates. Removing access and planning the project sign-off (option C) is an activity that is done during the closing phase of a project, not the planning phase. Removing access is a security measure to ensure that the project resources do not have access to the project systems, data, or assets after the project is completed. Planning the project sign-off is a process to obtain the formal acceptance and approval of the project deliverables from the stakeholders and customers.

• Question 198:

  A project manager reports that the implementation of a new system is on track to be completed under budget and ahead of the schedule. A stakeholder then asks the manager to add mobile device functionality. Which of the following should the project manager do in response to the request?

  A. Decline because it is not included in the project scope.

  B. Assess the impact of the request and create a change request

  C. Create new functional and non-functional requirements for mobile devices.

  D. Revise the baseline of the project plan by adding the new requirements.

  Correct Answer: B

  Assess the impact of the request and create a change request. The project manager should assess the impact of the request and create a change request in response to the stakeholder asking to add mobile device functionality to a project that is on track to be completed under budget and ahead of schedule. A change request is a document that formally proposes and records a modification or addition to some aspect of a project, such as scope, schedule, cost, quality, or resources. A change request can help to communicate and justify the need and rationale for the change and its implications on the project objectives and deliverables. A change request also helps to initiate the change control process, which involves reviewing, approving, implementing, and monitoring the change.

• Question 199:

  A PM is working on the preliminary scope statement and identifies that this project has the same approach as another project that was completed last year. Which of the following actions would the PM most likely perform?

  A. Call the previous PM for advice on risks and issues.

  B. Ask the project sponsor to provide previous final project report results.

  C. Complete the project charter using the other PM's subject matter expertise.

  D. Use existing artifacts and accommodate based on the current project success criteria.

  Correct Answer: D

  This answer is based on the best practice of using historical information and lessons learned from previous projects to improve the planning and execution of current projects. By using existing artifacts, such as scope statements, project plans, risk registers, and change logs, the PM can leverage the knowledge and experience of the previous PM and avoid repeating the same mistakes or oversights. However, the PM should also accommodate the artifacts based on the current project success criteria, which may differ from the previous project in terms of scope, schedule, budget, quality, or stakeholder expectations. The PM should not rely solely on the previous PM's advice, the project sponsor's report, or the project charter, as these sources may not provide enough detail or accuracy for the current project's scope statement. References: CompTIA Project+ Certification Study Guide, CompTIA Project+ Certification Exam Objectives, How to Use Historical Information in Project Management

  1.

  How to Use Lessons Learned to Improve Project Management

  2.

  How to Define Project Success Criteria

  3.

  How to Use Existing Artifacts in Project Management

• Question 200:

  A project manager makes a company-wide announcement about the successful completion of a project and thanks team members. Which of the following is the project manager doing?

  A. Bringing attention to the project sponsor

  B. Sharing lessons learned

  C. Collecting feedback

  D. Celebrating the team's hard work

  Correct Answer: D

  A project manager who makes a company-wide announcement about the successful completion of a project and thanks team members is doing the following:

  Celebrating the team's hard work: This is the correct answer, as the project manager is acknowledging the efforts and contributions of the team members and showing appreciation and recognition for their performance.

  Bringing attention to the project sponsor: This is not the correct answer, as the project manager is not highlighting the role or involvement of the project sponsor, who is the person who provides the resources and authority for the project.

  Sharing lessons learned: This is not the correct answer, as the project manager is not discussing the successes, challenges, or best practices of the project, which are part of the lessons learned process.

  Collecting feedback: This is not the correct answer, as the project manager is not soliciting any input or opinions from the team members or other stakeholders, which are part of the feedback process.