CompTIA CompTIA Certifications PK0-005 Questions & Answers

• Question 211:

  A project team is developing an application that will allocate a building's parking spaces. The building owner does not agree with using corporate colors in the application and has blocked the release of the beta version for testing. Which of the following best describes what the project manager should have done in the initiation phase to prevent this issue?

  A. Review of existing artifacts

  B. Development of an issue log

  C. Identification and assessment of stakeholders

  D. Establishment of accepted communication channels

  Correct Answer: C

  The project manager should have identified and assessed the building owner as a key stakeholder in the initiation phase, and understood their expectations and requirements for the application. This would have helped to avoid the conflict over the corporate colors and the delay in testing. Stakeholder identification and assessment is an important process in the initiation phase, as it helps to define the project scope, objectives, and success criteria, and to establish a communication plan. References: CompTIA Project+ PK0-005 Certification Study Guide

• Question 212:

  As a part of a project, structured cabling activities have been outsourced to another company. The agreement is that work will take six weeks to complete and will be performed at different locations. Which of the following should the project manager do? (Select two).

  A. Purchase the materials.

  B. Assign the resources.

  C. Accept delays in the work.

  D. Approve the deliverables.

  E. Monitor the performance.

  F. Negotiate with the vendors.

  Correct Answer: DE

  The project manager should approve the deliverables and monitor the performance of the outsourced structured cabling activities. These are the responsibilities of the project manager when dealing with external vendors or contractors, as they ensure that the quality standards, scope, schedule, and budget are met according to the contract terms and the project plan. The project manager should also communicate regularly with the vendor and provide feedback and guidance as needed. The other options are not correct because: Purchasing the materials is not the responsibility of the project manager, but the vendor who is performing the structured cabling activities. The project manager should only verify that the materials are suitable and available for the project. Assigning the resources is not the responsibility of the project manager, but the vendor who is performing the structured cabling activities. The project manager should only ensure that the vendor has the adequate and qualified resources to complete the work. Accepting delays in the work is not a good practice for the project manager, as it can negatively affect the project schedule, scope, and quality. The project manager should proactively identify and manage the risks and issues that may cause delays, and implement contingency plans or corrective actions if necessary. Negotiating with the vendors is not a task that the project manager should do during the execution of the structured cabling activities, as it should have been done during the planning and procurement phases of the project. The project manager should only adhere to the contract terms and conditions that have been agreed upon with the vendor, and only renegotiate if there are significant changes or disputes that require it. References: CompTIA Project+ Study Guide: Exam PK0-005, 3rd Edition, Chapter 8: Planning Projects, Part 4 (Procurement and Communication), pages 243-260; CompTIA Project+ Certification Exam Objectives, Domain 2: Project Planning, Objective

  2.5: Given a scenario, plan procurement for a project; Domain 3: Project Execution, Objective 3.2: Given a scenario, execute and monitor project tasks using traditional methodologies.

• Question 213:

  Which of the following is required to provide a hardware installation with a Tier 5 redundancy level?

  A. Storage project

  B. Computer services project

  C. Database project

  D. Multitiered architecture project

  Correct Answer: D

  A multitiered architecture project is a type of project that involves designing and implementing a system that consists of multiple layers or tiers, such as presentation, application, and data. A multitiered architecture project can provide a high level of redundancy, scalability, and performance, as each tier can have multiple servers or components that can handle requests and failures independently. A Tier 5 redundancy level is the highest level of redundancy that requires a fully redundant, mirrored system plus one additional backup unit for every component.

• Question 214:

  After a migration was completed and a financial system was deployed, users have been unable to issue payment orders. Which of the following should be implemented?

  A. Rollback plan

  B. Release plan

  C. Deployment plan

  D. Contingency plan

  Correct Answer: A

  A rollback plan is a part of the project management plan that defines how to revert the system to its previous state or baseline if the change or migration fails or causes unacceptable impacts. A rollback plan is different from a contingency plan, which is a plan to deal with a specific risk event that may or may not occur. A release plan and a deployment plan are not relevant to the scenario, as they are used to plan and execute the delivery and installation of the system, not to undo them. Therefore, the correct answer is A. Rollback plan.

• Question 215:

  Following the approval of a change by the CCB, which of the following should a project manager consider next when deploying a new networking device into an existing production environment?

  A. Maintenance window

  B. Risk assessment

  C. Operational security

  D. Validation check

  Correct Answer: A

  A maintenance window is a predefined period of time during which planned changes or updates can be performed on a system or network with minimal impact on the users or business operations. A project manager should consider the maintenance window next when deploying a new networking device into an existing production environment, as it will help to reduce the risk of downtime, disruption, or errors. A maintenance window should be scheduled in advance, communicated to the stakeholders, and aligned with the change management plan.

• Question 216:

  Which of the following is a capital expense?

  A. Building lease

  B. Building purchase

  C. Building maintenance

  D. Building insurance

  Correct Answer: B

  A capital expense is the cost of acquiring or making improvements to fixed assets that have a useful life of more than one year. A building purchase is an example of a capital expense, as it is a long-term investment that increases the value of the company's assets. Building lease, maintenance, and insurance are not capital expenses, as they are recurring or short-term costs that do not increase the value of the company's assets.

• Question 217:

  Which of the following best represents the project impact to a company's brand value?

  A. The project is compliant with local and state laws and becomes the standard for new projects.

  B. The project promotes new initiatives to expand its benefit to other communities.

  C. The project exceeds the sales quota for the third quarter and raises the bar for next periods.

  D. The project meets the expected milestones and finishes on time and within budget.

  Correct Answer: B

  the brand of a project should deliver the message about its value and goals, and a proper brand helps the project get the necessary support and increases loyalty. The project that promotes new initiatives to expand its benefit to other communities is the one that best represents the project impact to a company's brand value, as it shows the company's vision, cause, and reputation.

• Question 218:

  Which of the following tools should a project manager use to assess the activities performed, work effort applied, and the productivity of a project?

  A. Project status report

  B. Project evaluation review

  C. Project management software

  D. Requirements traceability matrix

  Correct Answer: B

  A project evaluation review is a tool that helps a project manager assess the activities performed, work effort applied, and the productivity of a project. It involves collecting and analyzing data on the project's performance, outcomes, and

  impacts. It also provides feedback and recommendations for improvement and learning. A project evaluation review can be done at different stages of the project life cycle, such as during or after completion.

  References:

  CompTIA Project+ PK0-005 Certification Study Guide, Chapter 14: Project Evaluation and Assessment; CompTIA Project+ Certification Exam Objectives, Domain 4:

  Project Closure, Objective 4.1: Conduct project closure activities.

• Question 219:

  A project team gathers weekly to review its progress. Which of the following is the project manager MOST likely to have prepared to ensure team members who are absent remain informed about assignments?

  A. Status report

  B. Project plan

  C. Change log

  D. Meeting minutes

  Correct Answer: D

  Meeting minutes should be prepared to ensure team members who are absent remain informed about assignments. Meeting minutes document what was discussed, decisions made, and assignments given during a meeting, providing a record of the team's progress and ensuring absent members are up-to-date. References: CompTIA Project+ Study Guide Section 4.2.2 The project manager should prepare meeting minutes to ensure team members who are absent remain informed about assignments. Meeting minutes are a written record of what was discussed and decided in a meeting. They usually include information such as attendees, agenda items, action items, decisions made, issues raised, and deadlines assigned. Meeting minutes can help to communicate important information to team members who could not attend the meeting and provide a reference for future follow-up.

• Question 220:

  Which of the following is a typical characteristic of Scrum?

  A. Large teams

  B. Low-risk scope

  C. Self-organized team

  D. Well-defined scope

  Correct Answer: C

  A self-organized team is a typical characteristic of Scrum, which is an agile framework for managing complex projects. A self-organized team is a group of motivated and skilled individuals who have the autonomy and authority to make decisions and collaborate on how to deliver the project goals. A self-organized team does not rely on a manager or a leader to assign tasks, monitor progress, or resolve issues. Instead, a self-organized team uses Scrum events, such as daily stand-ups, sprint planning, sprint review, and sprint retrospective, to coordinate their work, communicate with each other, and inspect and adapt their process and product. References: CompTIA Project+ Study Guide: Exam PK0-005, 3rd Edition, Chapter 2: Project Methodologies, p. 55; Scrum Characteristics - Scrumversity; What is Scrum? | Scrum.org; Characteristics of a Great Scrum Team | Scrum.org