CompTIA CompTIA Certifications PK0-005 Questions & Answers

• Question 251:

  When creating a project schedule, a project manager adds activities with zero duration. Which of the following describes these types of activities?

  A. Critical paths

  B. Resources

  C. Milestones

  D. Work breakdown structures

  Correct Answer: C

  Milestones are activities with zero duration that are added to a project schedule by a project manager. Milestones are significant events or achievements in a project that mark the completion of a phase, deliverable, or task. Milestones can help to track and measure the progress and performance of a project and communicate it to stakeholders.

• Question 252:

  Which of the following is an activity that should be used in the closing phase of a project to support the project triple constraint?

  A. Evaluating the project

  B. Releasing the resources

  C. Closing the contracts

  D. Reconciling the budget

  Correct Answer: A

  Evaluating the project is an activity that should be used in the closing phase of a project to support the project triple constraint. This involves reviewing the project plan, deliverables, and outcomes to ensure they meet the project objectives and requirements. References: CompTIA Project+ Study Guide Section 4.4.4

• Question 253:

  Which of the following is a quality assurance tool?

  A. Defining project goals

  B. Identifying the root cause analysis

  C. Assessing employee efficiency

  D. Assessing skill gaps

  Correct Answer: B

  Identifying the root cause analysis. Identifying the root cause analysis is a quality assurance tool that can help to find and eliminate the underlying causes of quality problems or defects. Root cause analysis is a systematic process of asking why a problem occurred and tracing it back to its source. Root cause analysis can help to prevent recurrence of the same or similar problems, improve quality performance, and reduce costs and risks.

• Question 254:

  A project manager is in the closing phase of an IT asset refresh project that involves the disposal of several computers. The project sponsor notified the project manager that the company recently received a penalty as a result of disposing of some computers improperly. Which of the following should have been considered during initial planning to prevent this situation?

  A. ESG

  B. PHI

  C. Pll

  D. ROI

  Correct Answer: A

  The project manager should have considered environmental, social, and governance (ESG) factors during initial planning to prevent the situation of receiving a penalty for disposing of some computers improperly. ESG factors are criteria that measure the sustainability and ethical impact of an organization's activities. They include aspects such as environmental protection, social responsibility, human rights, diversity, and corporate governance. Considering ESG factors can help to reduce risks, improve reputation, and enhance performance of an organization.

• Question 255:

  After months of recruiting, a team finally found the right candidate for a very specific coding language assignment. Due to this delay, the team has a tight timeline without any float. A day before the candidate is scheduled to join the team, the

  project manager realizes the candidate has a non-compete agreement from the previous employer.

  Which of the following should the project manager do?

  A. Withdraw the offer to the candidate and raise this as a risk.

  B. Ignore a potential lawsuit since this is a critical project.

  C. Use a third-party company for the contract to legally avoid responsibility.

  D. Have a meeting with the project sponsor to discuss the situation.

  Correct Answer: D

  The project manager should inform the project sponsor about the issue and seek their guidance and support. The project sponsor is the person who provides the resources and authority for the project, and who can help resolve any conflicts or problems that may arise. The project manager should not withdraw the offer, ignore the lawsuit, or use a third-party company without consulting the project sponsor first, as these actions may have legal, ethical, or financial implications for the project and the organization.

• Question 256:

  Which of the following cloud models is designed to provide compute, storage, and networking resources on demand?

  A. Software as a service

  B. Infrastructure as a service

  C. Data as a service

  D. Platform as a service

  Correct Answer: B

  Infrastructure as a service (IaaS) is a cloud model that provides on-demand access to cloud-hosted physical and virtual servers, storage, and networking resources. IaaS customers can provision, configure, and use these resources as they would use on- premises hardware, but without the hassle of purchasing, installing, managing, and maintaining them. The cloud service provider owns, manages, and maintains the hardware and computing resources in its own data centers, and charges the customers based on their usage. IaaS is suitable for customers who need flexibility, scalability, and control over their IT infrastructure, and who want to avoid the high costs and complexity of owning and operating their own hardware. The other options are not correct because: Software as a service (SaaS) is a cloud model that provides on-demand access to ready-to-use, cloud-hosted application software. SaaS customers do not need to install, update, or maintain the software, as the cloud service provider handles all the technical aspects. SaaS is suitable for customers who need to access common applications, such as email, office productivity, or customer relationship management, without worrying about the underlying infrastructure or platform. Data as a service (DaaS) is a cloud model that provides on-demand access to cloud-hosted data sources, such as databases, data warehouses, or data lakes. DaaS customers can query, analyze, and visualize the data, as well as integrate it with other applications or services, using APIs or web interfaces. DaaS is suitable for customers who need to leverage data from various sources, such as social media, IoT devices, or third-party providers, without having to store, manage, or process the data themselves. Platform as a service (PaaS) is a cloud model that provides on-demand access to a complete, ready-to-use, cloud-hosted platform for developing, running, maintaining, and managing applications. PaaS customers can use the platform's tools, frameworks, libraries, and services to create and deploy applications, without having to worry about the underlying infrastructure or software. PaaS is suitable for customers who need to develop, test, and deploy applications quickly and efficiently, and who want to take advantage of the cloud's scalability, reliability, and security features. References: IaaS vs. PaaS vs. SaaS; AWS Fundamentals: Understanding Compute, Storage, Database, Networking and Security; What are the different types of cloud computing?;What is Cloud Storage and How to Use It

• Question 257:

  A project manager needs to ensure that the products produced during the project meet the highest quality standards and that team members understand the importance of these standards. Which of the following should the project manager do?

  A. Train the team members.

  B. Assess the resource pool.

  C. Develop a QA plan.

  D. Create RACI matrix.

  Correct Answer: C

  A QA plan, or quality assurance plan, is a document that specifies the quality standards, practices, resources, specifications, and activities for a product, service, project, or contract. A QA plan helps to ensure that the products produced during the project meet the highest quality standards and that the project objectives and customer requirements are met. A QA plan also helps to communicate the quality expectations and responsibilities to the team members and other

  stakeholders, and to monitor and control the quality performance throughout the project. Developing a QA plan is one of the key tasks of the project manager, as it is part of the project scope management and project quality management

  processes.

  References: CompTIA Project+ Study Guide: Exam PK0- 005, 3rd Edition, Chapter 3: Project Scope Management, p. 97; Chapter 5: Project Quality Management, p. 169; 6 Key Steps to Creating A Quality Assurance Plan - The QA Lead;

  What is Quality Planning? Quality Control Plans | ASQ; What Is A Quality Assurance Plan?- Sofeast

• Question 258:

  A developer recommends modifying an existing portion of code that is not part of the scope and is causing low performance on the current solution. Which of the following actions should the project manager most likely take?

  A. Ask a developer to create a change request.

  B. Do nothing because recommendation is scope creep.

  C. Ask a developer to implement the recommendation.

  D. Communicate the change status.

  Correct Answer: A

  The project manager should ask the developer to create a change request, which is a formal document that describes the proposed change, its benefits, costs, risks, and impacts on the project scope, schedule, budget, and quality. A change request is the first step in the change control process, which involves evaluating, approving, or rejecting changes to the project baselines. The project manager should not do nothing, because ignoring the recommendation could result in poor performance and customer dissatisfaction. The project manager should not ask the developer to implement the recommendation without following the change control process, because that could cause scope creep, which is the uncontrolled expansion of the project scope without proper authorization or adjustment of the project resources and objectives. The project manager should not communicate the change status before the change request is submitted and approved, because that could create confusion and false expectations among the project stakeholders. References: CompTIA Project+ Study Guide: Exam PK0-005, 3rd Edition, Chapter 4: Project Integration Management; CompTIA Project+ Certification Study Guide, 3rd Edition, Chapter 4: Project Integration Management; What is a Change Request and How to Manage It

• Question 259:

  One of the key steps in controlling changes lo software is obtaining approval. Which of the following statements best describes the reason for this key objective?

  A. To send the appropriate customer notifications

  B. To avoid a negative impact on other software functionalities

  C. To ensure adequate resources are in place to implement the change

  D. To confirm that the software is a business priority

  Correct Answer: B

  Obtaining approval for changes to software is crucial to ensure that the changes do not negatively impact other functionalities of the software. Approval processes typically involve a review that assesses the potential impacts of the change,

  which helps in mitigating risks associated with the change.

  References: The answer is based on standard project management practices and the typical use of change control processes in software development. For detailed information, please refer to the CompTIA Project+ Study Guide and other

  official CompTIA resources.

• Question 260:

  Two stakeholders, who have a history of animosity toward one another, are in disagreement during a project. The project's timeline depends on the stakeholders accomplishing their tasks. Which of the following conflict resolution methods would be best to utilize?

  A. Smoothing

  B. Confronting

  C. Forcing

  D. Compromising

  Correct Answer: B

  Confronting, also known as problem-solving or collaborating, is a method of conflict resolution that involves addressing the root cause of the conflict and finding a mutually beneficial solution that satisfies both parties. Confronting is the most

  effective method when the stakes are high and the relationship is important, as it can lead to increased trust, respect, and cooperation. Confronting requires open communication, active listening, empathy, and creativity from both parties.

  Confronting is the best method to use in this scenario, as it can help the stakeholders overcome their personal animosity, focus on their common goals, and work together to complete their tasks on time.

  References:

  CompTIA Project+ Study Guide: Exam PK0-005, 3rd Edition, Chapter 7: Project Stakeholder Management, p. 246; What is Conflict Resolution, and How Does It Work?